Parasitology Final Master Set

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Last updated 7:15 PM on 8/8/26
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450 Terms

1
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Animals kept in a parasite free environment (without exposed to parasites) will develop protective immunity, and they will not suffer clinical signs on first exposure.

They will suffer severe clinical signs on first exposure

2
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A small proportion of the ruminants in a herd shed the majority of eggs.

This is an overdispersion of eggs due to the prolific parasite shedders

3
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What is the meaning of the arrested development period of GI nematode larvae of ruminants.

L3 and L4 can enter an “inhibited” stage, also referred to as “hypobiosis”

4
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The wide variation in fecundity of different trichostongyle species affects the utility and reliability of diagnostic tests.

True

5
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Chronic GI parasitism may also predispose animals to secondary infections (bacterial, viral, fungal) that would normally be able to resist.

True

6
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Submandibular odema (bottle jaw) can occur in GI parasitism.

Clinical signs of hypoproteinaemia might include bottle jaw

7
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Integrated parasite management plans include the following

Monitoring, treatment and other meters

8
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Avoid deworming the entire herd at one time, and do not move the animals to clean pasture immediately after deworming.

True

9
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Immunity to GI nematodes is acquired slowly by beef cattle.

Two grazing seasons may be required before a non-sterilizing protective immunity is attained

10
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Biosecurity and quarantine of ruminants with GI parasites include the following

Animals with diarrhea and weakness should be separated from the rest of the herd

11
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Lice are host-specific, obligate ectoparasites that depend on the host to complete their life cycle.

Lice are highly host-specific ectoparasites

12
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Lice can be vectors of viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa.

It is true

13
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Bloodsucking and chewing lice are parasites of both mammals and birds.

Only chewing lice infest both mammals and birds

14
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For cattle extent of lice infestation can be due to stressors such as high stocking density and poor feed quality.

Correct

15
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Chewing lice feed on epidermal debris, primarily skin scales and sebaceous secretions.

True statement

16
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All life stages of lice occur on the host, except eggs that hatch at the environment.

All life stages of lice occur on the host, including eggs

17
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On mammalian hosts, louse eggs (nits) are glued to hairs near the skin surface.

Nits remain on hair nevertheless bathing the animal

18
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Lice infestation creates an unthrifty appearance and lowered production in farm animals.

Often in farm animals is recorded a lower production

19
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Ruminants do not have their own species of fleas.

Correct

20
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Adult fleas are not host-specific.

True

21
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Fleas are permanent ectoparasites of sheep.

Fleas visit sheep for blood feeding only

22
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Both flea sexes feed on blood and, in case of large populations, anemia may occur.

True

23
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Skin wounds due to flea bites may attract flies and develop traumatic myiasis.

Possible

24
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Adult stages of Musca domestica are synanthropic, i.e. they are often associated with human dwellings and readily fly from faeces to food.

True

25
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In facultative myiasis, the adult flies are attracted to a moist wound, skin lesion, or soiled hair coat.

Correct

26
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Fly strike is the condition when maggots ingest dead cells, exudate, secretions, debris, and also live tissue.

Fly strike is the condition when maggots ingest dead tissue

27
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Behaviour of sheep is a good indicator of fly strike for early diagnosis.

Indeed

28
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Hypoderma spp. (L1) larvae secrete proteolytic enzymes that facilitate their movement and stimulate an immune response.

True

29
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Bovine hypodermosis affects neither the productivity and welfare of animals nor any considerable losses.

It results in decreased meat and milk production

30
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Serologic testing to detect bovine hypodermosis.

It is based on antibody detection in blood sera

31
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Systemic insecticides containing macrocyclic lactones in pour-on and injectable formulations are effective against Hypoderma.

Correct

32
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Systemic insecticides containing macrocyclic lactones in pour-on and injectable formulations are effective against myiasis-causing flies.

Correct

33
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The use of ivermectin for cattle grub control is prohibited in dairy animals due to the residues present in milk for varying periods after treatment, withdrawal times for all treatments must be observed.

Correct

34
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The use of eprinomectin for cattle grub control is not prohibited in dairy animals due to the residues present in milk for varying periods after treatment

Correct

35
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Blood-feeding of both sexes dipteran species include stable flies and horn flies.

Correct

36
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Female and male black flies require a blood meal to lay eggs.

Males are never blood feeders but instead feed on nectar from flowers

37
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Attacks by large numbers of black flies can cause severe damage and high mortality in production animals.

True

38
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Death from black fly attacks apparently results from a toxin in the saliva, which increases capillary permeability.

Correct

39
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Biting midges are tiny gnats that inflict painful bites and suck blood of their hosts.

Correct

40
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Culicoides spp. when in large numbers, they can make ruminants to be nervous and interrupt their feeding patterns.

True

41
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The larval and pupal forms of stable fly develop in decaying organic matter, including grass clippings and seaweed along beaches.

Correct

42
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Larvae of stable flies can be found in wet areas around the edges of hay stacks and silage pits.

True

43
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Stable fly control is via sanitation, because of rapid development of larvae in straw containing faecal material.

Correct

44
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Stable flies feed on the lower portions of cattle, around the legs and belly.

True

45
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Adult horn flies spend their entire life on their host, and females leave only to oviposit eggs on fresh cow faeces, where larval and pupal development occurs.

Correct

46
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Adult female horn flies oviposit eggs on fresh cow faeces, where larval and pupal development occurs.

True

47
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Adult horn flies feeding causes pain and annoyance to cattle.

True for the adult flies

48
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Adult horn flies cause great economic losses due to reduction in weight gain and milk production.

Correct

49
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Adult horn flies cause great economic losses due to reduction in milk production.

True, 10-20%

50
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The female ked gives birth to a single, fully developed larva, which is cemented to the wool.

True

51
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Ked numbers increase during the winter and early spring.

Ked numbers increase during the winter and early spring, but they spread rapidly

52
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What is the diet of sheep keds.

Blood

53
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Face flies are not biting dipterans

True

54
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Head flies are a nuisance to domestic animals and humans because they are attracted to the mouth, nose, eyes, and wounds to feed on secretions.

Correct

55
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Musca domestica causes annoyance and pathogens transmission to ruminants.

Correct

56
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The most pathogenic species of Theileria (eg. T. parva and T. annulata) multiply predominantly within the host WBCs, whereas less pathogenic species multiply mainly in RBCs.

Correct

57
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There is transovarial transmission the Theileria, as occurs in Babesia.

Wrong, transovarial transmission occurs only in Babesia

58
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Babesiosis and theileriosis are the most important tickborne diseases due to major financial losses.

Correct

59
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Confirmation of trypanosmosis diagnosis depends on demonstrating trypanosomes in stained blood smears or wet mounts.

Correct

60
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Wounds caused by dense clusters of adult ticks can make the host susceptible to traumatic myiasis.**

True??

61
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Tick infestation can lead to reduced milk yield.

Tick bites can cause stress which, in combination with the anaemia, due to blood feeding, result in reduced milk yield.

62
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The duration of the tick life cycle depends only on the tick species.

It depend on the tick species, host availability, and weather conditions

63
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Effective biological control of ticks using plant extracts (oils) is possible.

They can be a useful alternative method for tick control

64
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Mites causing animal mange feed on skin debris, sebaceous secretions, blood, lymph, or other material.

True

65
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Sarcoptes scabiei is found in the skin and can survive long periods off the host.

It can only survive very short periods off the host

66
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Ruminants become infested coming in direct contact with Sarcoptic individuals of the same species or beddings.

True

67
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Pruritus is intense in sarcoptic mange.

True

68
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Progressive emancipation, wool loss, skin thickening with crusts and scabs followed by reduced production are expected in long-standing cases.

True

69
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Macrocytic lactones are fully effective against sarcoptic mange in ruminants in a single administration.

They are effective, but two administrations are recommended with 7-10 days apart to fully eliminate the mites

70
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Psoroptes ovis os a non burrowing mite that lives on the skin surface and feed on serum and other fluid secretions from the bite wound.

True

71
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Psoroptic mange in cattle can result in death, weight loss, decreased milk production and increased susceptibility to other diseases.

True

72
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Psoroptes ovis transmission is primarily via direct contact of infested and susceptible hosts and also via contaminated environments and fomites.

Transmission occurs via direct contact and contaminated environments (P. ovis can survive off the host for >2 weeks under the right conditions)

73
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Demodex bovis results in chronic inflammation, with formation of ulcers, abscesses, and fistulate with intense pruritis.

Wrong

74
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Demodex spp. mites can be found by skin scrapings and can be easily identified microscopically due to their characteristic shape.

True

75
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Neotrombicula autumnalis are found in clusters on the face, ears, and feet.

Only larvae are parasitic

76
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Only Neotrombicula autumnalis larvae are ectoparasites feeding on their host blood.

Only larvae are ectoparasites

77
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Oestrus ovis female flies are viviparous and survive up to 2 weeks, as they do not feed.

Female O. ovis flies deposit larvae on the area of the nostrils

78
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Aquatic leeches (Limnatis nilotica) live in ponds, lakes, and streams.

Occasionally they can enter the nasal cavities or pharynx of animals by drinking water

79
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Aquatic leeches (Limnatis nilotica) attract the veterinary interest because:

Depending on the site of attachment, they can cause severe symptoms of the upper respiratory system, including dyspnoea, cough and bleeding from the nostrils

80
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Dictyocaulus spp. infection of ruminants is the lungworm infection of greatest economic importance.

True, they cause severe outbreaks of parasitic bronchitis in cattle of all ages

81
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The principal source of new Dictycaulus spp. infections each year is from infected carrier animals, with overwintered larvae providing a secondary contribution in some geographic areas.

True

82
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Clinical disease due to Dictyocaulus spp. infections in ruminants usually develops after first exposure to sufficient infective larvae.

True, the severity of disease and stimulation of an immune response is related to the number of larvae ingested

83
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Infected animals with Dictyocaulus spp. may present bilateral nasal discharge, couching, and increased respiratory rate.

Correct

84
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Diagnosis of Dictyocaulus spp. infection in ruminants is based on

The Baermann technique the method of choice

85
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Antihelminthic prophylaxis is the main step for bovine lungworm Dictycaulus spp. control

Correct, with added benefit of controlling GI nematodes

86
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If Toxoplasma gondii infection occurs in early gestation (<55 days), there is embryonic death, but if it occurs in mid-gestation, then abortion or mummified embryo is seen.

Correct

87
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Toxoplasma gondii:

The oocysts are found only in cat (the definitive host) faeces

88
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Toxoplasma gondii oocysts sporogony:

Sporogony occurs in 1-5 days, depending mainly on temperature

89
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Infected with Toxoplasma gondii placentas and dead lambs should be destroyed in order to avoid being ingested by cats.

This is an important step to prevent toxoplasmosis in animals

90
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Toxoplasma gondii oocysts are very resistant and can survive for long periods.

True, they are very resistant

91
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Humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii by the ingestion

Both of raw or not well cooked meat and the parasite oocysts expelled in cat faeces (e.g. in fresh salads and fruit)

92
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Neosporosis is one of the most common causes of bovine abortion, especially in intensively farmed cows

True

93
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Neospora caninum tachzoites represent the responsible stage for the acute phase of infection, tissue damage, and systemic dissemination.

Correct

94
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Dogs and wild canids, such as gray wolves, coyotes, and dingoes, are definitive hosts of Neospora caninum.

Correct, all canids

95
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Dogs have been shown to become infected with Neospora caninum by eating infected cattle, including the placentas from aborted foetuses.

Correct

96
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The sexual cycle of Neospora caninum takes place in the dog’s intestine, while the asexual cycle occurs in the intermediate host.

Correct, plus that oocysts are expelled to the environment with dog faeces

97
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Is Neospora caninum horizontal (postnatal) transmission possible in cattle?

Yes, it is due to ingestion of water or food contaminated with sporulated oocysts

98
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Neospora caninum vertical transmission in cattle

Cows can become infected by consuming sporulated oocysts during pregnancy and females that are chronically infected carriers of cysts containing bradyzoites that reactivate to infective tachyzoites during pregnancy

99
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The main risk factors for infection by Neospora caninum in cattle include

Breed, the presence of dogs and poor hygiene and biosecurity

100
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Epidemic Neospora caninum abortion

Is a possible consequence of sudden, large-scale transmission to pregnant cattle, presumable by ingestion of a mixed ration or of water contaminated with canine faeces that contain oocysts