RADT 102 EXAM #3

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Last updated 2:27 PM on 8/28/26
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137 Terms

1
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Describe TOMOGRAPHY

isolates and visualizes a particular section of the body by blurring out structures above and below the area of interest

2
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What is DRT

Digital Radiographic Tomosynthesis

  • - less costly and less exposure than CT

  • - stops and shoots or sweeps

  • - 6-10 exposures at different angles = 1 single digital radiograph


3
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What does CT do

produces transaxial or transverse images

4
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What is the DESCRIPTION OF THE BEAM for the 1ST generation of CT

pencil beam

5
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What is the DESCRIPTION OF THE BEAM for the 2ND / 3RD / 4TH generation of CT

fan-shaped beam

6
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What is the NUMBER OF TUBES for the 1ST / 2ND / 3RD / 4TH generations of CT

1 tube

7
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What is the NUMBER OF DETECTORS for the 1ST generation of CT

single detector

8
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What is the NUMBER OF DETECTORS for the 2ND generation of CT

multiple detector assembly

  • - 5-30 about


9
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What is the NUMBER OF DETECTORS for the 3RD generation of CT

multiple detector array

10
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What is the NUMBER OF DETECTORS for the 4TH generation of CT

multiple detector array

  • - as many as 4000


11
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What is the TYPE OF MOVEMENT for the 1ST generation of CT

Translate-Rotate

  • - translates across pt, rotates between successive translations


12
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What is the TYPE OF MOVEMENT for the 2ND generation of CT

Rotate-Translate

13
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What is the TYPE OF MOVEMENT for the 3RD generation of CT

Rotate-Rotate

  • - uses a curvilinear detector array


14
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What is the TYPE OF MOVEMENT for the 4TH generation of CT

Rotate-Stationary

  • - x-ray source rotates, but detector assembly does not


15
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What is the IMAGING TIME for the 1ST generation of CT

5 minutes

16
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What is the IMAGING TIME for the 2ND generation of CT

30 seconds

17
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What is the IMAGING TIME for the 3RD generation of CT

subsecond imaging time

  • - less than 100 ms


18
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What is the IMAGING TIME for the 4TH generation of CT

subsecond imaging time

19
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What are the ADVANTAGES of the 1ST generation of CT

finely collimated x-ray beam, which reduces scatter radiation

20
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What are the ADVANTAGES of the 2ND generation of CT

speed was better than 1st generation (getting faster)

21
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What are the ADVANTAGES of the 3RD generation of CT

a constant source-to-detector path length, which is good for image reconstruction

covers entire patient

better x-ray beam collimation, reducing scatter radiation

faster than 2nd generation

22
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What are the ADVANTAGES of the 4TH generation of CT

allows each detector to be calibrated and its signal normalized for each image

very fast

free of ring artifacts

23
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What are the LIMITATIONS of the 1ST generation of CT

too slow

24
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What are the LIMITATIONS of the 2ND generation of CT

fan beam increases radiation intensity

too slow

25
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What are the LIMITATIONS of the 3RD generation of CT

occasional appearance of ring artifacts

  • - caused by malfunctions of the acquired signal or lack thereof


26
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What are the LIMITATIONS of the 4TH generation of CT

does not result in constant beam path from the source to all detectors

increases scatter radiation

27
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What does TRANSLATION mean (CT)

sweep around, cuts

  • - tube rotates around the body


28
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What does ROTATION mean (CT)

tube moving around

29
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What does STEP AND SHOOT mean (CT)

pt couch moves in little by little to be shot, it stops to be shot at different sections

  • - process allows you to catch the tail end of what you already radiated


30
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What does MULTISLICE HELICAL mean (CT)

pt couch moves through as the tube is going around, doesn’t stop to shoot, keeps going

31
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Describe CT OPERATING CONSOLES

  • - dual monitors

  • - operator turns CT scanner on and off

  • - selects and control the protocol which is predetermined (including kVp, mAs, pitch, FOV, slice thickness, table indexing, reconstruction, algorithms and display windows)

  • - kVp and mAs preselected along with focal spot size


32
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Describe the COLLIMATION of a CT SCANNER

two collimators

  • - prepatient

    • - determines DOSE PROFILE and PATIENT DOSE

  • - predetector

    • - determines SENSITIVITY PROFILE and SLICE THICKNESS


33
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Describe MRI

  • - MAGNETIZES the atomic nuclei in hydrogen atoms

  • - bombards these atoms with radiofrequency waves (generated by coil specific to the anatomy)

  • - the coils shoot out RF waves, knock hydrogen atoms down and when they come back up they release energy that is sent back to coil, that information is digitized for image

  • - hydrogen atoms absorb RF and re-emit back as radiowaves

  • - signals are sent to computer to construct an image

  • - magnetic energy is non-ionizing, MRI is non-ionizing


34
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What does MRI demonstrate

soft tissue anatomy

35
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What are the CONTRAINDICATIONS for MRI

metal in body or claustrophobia

36
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List the ORDER of the CT NUMBERS for various tissues (GREATEST → LEAST)

  • dense bone (3000)

  • muscle (50)

  • white matter (45)

  • gray matter (40)

  • blood (20)

  • cerebrospinal fluid (15)

  • water (0)

  • fat (-100)

  • lungs (-200)

  • air (-1000)


37
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As the tissue gets more DENSE, the CT number _____

INCREASES

38
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What is the purpose of the ALGORITHM (AI)

  • receive data

    • take in data that is labeled / unlabeled

  • learn from data

    • analyze data to identify patterns / correlations

  • make decisions

  • adapt

    • improve over time as they are exposed to new data


39
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What is ANI (AI)

Artificial Narrow Intelligence

  • aka weak AI

  • designed to solve a single task or narrow range of tasks

  • goal-oriented and operates within predefined parameters

  • lacks human-like intelligence and common sense reasoning

  • e.g. voice assistants, recommendation engines, and image / speech recognition


40
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What is AGI (AI)

Artificial General Intelligence

  • aka strong AI / human-level AI

  • aims to mimic human cognitive abilities

  • can solve complex problems in settings and contexts that were not taught to it

  • can learn from minimal data and adapt to new situations

  • e.g. customer service, healthcare, autonomous systems


41
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What is ASI (AI)

Artificial Superintelligence

  • hypothetical AI system that surpasses human intelligence in every field

  • would have advanced cognitive functions and problem-solving skills


42
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What is SUPERVISED machine learning (AI)

uses labeled datasets to train algorithms to predict outcomes and recognize patterns

  • given LABELED training to learn the relationship between the INPUT / OUTPUTS


43
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What is UNSUPERVISED machine learning (AI)

learns from data without human supervision

  • learning models are given UNLABELED data and allowed to discover patterns and insights without any explicit guidance / instruction


44
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What is DEEP LEARNING (DL) machine learning (AI)

uses multilayered neural networks to simulate the complex decision-making power of the human brain

  • subset of machine learning


45
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List the possible APPLICATIONS of AI in IMAGING

  • order scheduling and patient screening

  • exam protocoling

  • image acquisition

  • image analysis

    • automated detection of findings

    • automated interpretation of findings

  • automated clinical decision support (CDS)

  • image post-processing

  • determine what is STAT, needing TRIAGE

  • can identify appropriate imaging exams based on findings


46
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What is the difference between QA and QC

Quality assurance = about the PATIENTS

Quality control = about the MACHINE

47
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Describe QA (quality assurance)

  • responsibilities of managers and radiologists

  • pt scheduling

  • reception

  • preparations

  • safety

  • personal treatment

  • the team determines patient waiting time, patient education, and appropriate follow-up


48
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What do RADIOLOGISTS do?

image interpretation

  • disease/condition should be consistent with diagnosis

  • outcome analysis (study that examines image interpretation process) required if diagnosis is not consistent


49
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List the Joint Commission’s 10-step QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM

  1. Assign responsibility

  2. delineate scope of care

  3. identify aspects of care

  4. identify outcomes that affect the aspects of care

  5. establish limits of the scope of assessment

  6. collect and organize data

  7. evaluate care when outcomes are reached

  8. take action to improve care

  9. assess and document actions

  10. communicate information to organization-wide quality assurance


50
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Describe QC (quality control)

  • monitors x-ray equipment

  • ensures optimal image for radiologist

  • medical physicists designs, implements and maintains


51
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An acceptable QC program consists of what THREE steps?

  • acceptance testing

    • when new equipment is given, it goes through testing to make sure it meets table criteria

  • routine performance monitoring

    • done for machines to make sure everything still works (like taking a car to get oil changed)

  • maintenance

    • something is broken/off and needs to be fixed


52
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EVALUATION should follow any major equipment modification

true

53
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of FILTRATION (table criteria)

  • annually

  • within 2.5 mm Al tolerance (greater than or equal to)


54
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of COLLIMATION (table criteria)

  • semiannually

  • within 2% SID tolerance


55
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of FOCAL SPOT SIZE (table criteria)

  • annually

  • within 50% tolerance


56
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of CALIBRATION OF KVP (table criteria)

  • annually

  • within 10%


57
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of EXPOSURE TIMER ACCURACY (table criteria)

  • annually

  • when GREATER than 10 ms, within 5%

  • when LESS THAN OR EQUAL TO 10 ms, within 20%


58
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of EXPOSURE LINEARITY (table criteria)

  • annually

  • within 10%


59
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What is the FREQUENCY / TOLERANCE of EXPOSURE REPRODUCIBILITY (table criteria)

  • annually

  • within 5%


60
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What TOOL is used to test FILTRATION

half value layer tool (HVL)

61
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What TOOL is used to test COLLIMATION

  • beam alignment test tool

  • collimator test tool

  • eight-penny (nine-penny if one put in center) test


62
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Describe the EIGHT PENNY test (done for collimation)

  • works at 72 INCHES

  • field open 14 × 17, light field visualized

  • one penny on outside of light, one penny on inside on all 4 sides

  • when exposed, you should only see 4 pennies

  • if you don’t see inside penny, that’s 2% error of collimation

  • if you don’t see outside penny, that’s 1% error of collimation


63
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What TOOLS are used to test SID

tape measure

64
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What TOOLS are used to test FOCAL SPOT SIZE

  • measurement focal spot

  • pinhole camera tool (DIFFICULT, excessive exposure time)

  • star pattern tool (EASY)

  • slit camera tool (PREFERENCE)


65
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What TOOLS are used to test KVP

  • filtered ion chambers

  • filtered photodiode

  • voltage diode

  • oscilloscope

  • Wisconsin test cassette

  • ardan and crooks cassette

  • digital KVP meter


66
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What TOOLS are used to test EXPOSURE TIMER ACCURACY

  • ion chamber / photodiode assembly

  • synchronous spinning top (MORE COMMON)


67
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Describe the SYNCHRONOUS SPINNING TOP test (used for exposure timer accuracy)

  • produces an image that is testing the specific time you want to test

  • image looks like an arc, which is measured

  • MATH EQUATION →

    • actual exposure time = arc size/360


68
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What TOOLS are used to test for EXPOSURE LINEARITY

  • SAME MAS, DIFFERENT mA, DIFFERENT time

    • uses precision radiation dosimeter (measures radiation intensity at various combinations of Ma / time that all equal the same MAS)

    • they should show the same read on the dosimeter, if not, mA station is off

  • SAME time, DIFFERENT mA, DIFFERENT MAS

    • exposure should be INCREASING, but not by too much

    • between two adjacent stations it should only increase 10%


69
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What TOOLS are used to test for EXPOSURE REPRODUCIBILITY

  • precision radiation dosimeter utilized

  • after an exam is done, technique is changed and a different exam happens

  • then the same original exam is done again

  • the image should be the same (reproducible) by 5% and shouldn’t deviate by much


70
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What TOOLS are used to test for PROTECTIVE APPAREL CHECKING

  • the shields are fluoroed annually for defects

  • if there are cracks, tears, or holes the shield has to be discarded


71
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How many RECTIFIERS in a 3 phase 6 pulse

6 rectifiers

72
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How many PULSES PER SECOND in 3 phase 6 pulse

360 voltage pulses

73
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How many PULSES PER SECOND in 3 phase 12 pulse

720 voltage pulses

74
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How many RECTIFIERS in 3 phase 12 pulse

12 rectifiers

75
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In a HIGH FREQUENCY system, the source of AC is fed into a _______ before entering the voltage section. This component changes the frequency of the AC from 60 hz to ________ hz

MICROPROCESSOR CIRCUIT

as much as 100,000 hz

76
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What is the DIFFERENCE in the POWER RATINGS of a three phase / high frequency and single phase unit

single phase equation multiplies 0.707 also

  • due to single phase rippling effect, AC requires the multiplier to be added

  • three phase / high frequency equation =

    • KW = kVp x mA / 1000

  • single phase equation =

    • KW = kVp x mA x 0.707 / 1000


77
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The FLOOR of the control booth must not have an area LESS THAN _____

7.5 sq ft

78
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The WALL of the control booth must be at least ________ and fixed to the floor

7 ft high

  • must be shielded at least 1.5 mm


79
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The WINDOW of the control booth must be _______ in size and mounted at least ________ above the floor

1 sq ft

5 ft

  • must be shielded at least 1.5 mm


80
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The DOOR of the examination room must _________

be interlocked with the control panel so that an exposure cannot be made unless the door is closed

81
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The EXPOSURE SWITCH should be __________ from any open edge / open area

at least 30 inches away

82
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The SCATTERING INTENSITY OF PHOTONS ________

must scatter at least twice before they can enter any opening in the control booth

  • each time a photon scatters, its intensity from the scattering object is 1/1000 of the original intensity at a distance of 1 m


83
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What is the appropriate LEAKAGE AMOUNT

1 mGya : 1 meter : 1 hour

84
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What is used to test the MONITOR

SMPTE

AAPMTG-18

85
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What are LUMINANCE PATCHES used for

looking for gross deviation in luminance adjustments

86
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What is GRAY SCALE DISPLAY FUNCTION

maintaining consistent grayscale appearance on DICOM compatible display

87
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What TOOLS are used to test LUMINANCE (?)

  • magnifying glass

  • photometer


88
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What is LUMINANCE

brightness coming through

  • measure of the brightness of a digital display device

  • can be measured by photometer


89
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What is ILLUMINANCE

light around the room, glare against the monitor

  • measure of intensity of light incident on a surface


90
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What is CQI / TQM

Continuous Quality Improvement / Total Quality Management

  • focuses on the process vs the individual

  • e.g. are undiagnostic images being sent to PACS … if the system goes down for any reason, how long is down?


91
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What do SMPTE / AAOMTG-18 test for

  • general appearance

  • geometric distortion

  • luminance, reflection, noise and glare

  • tested monthly or quarterly


92
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Describe testing for LUMINANCE

  • looking for how bright the monitor is

    • 100 candeliter (cd/m)² per sq

  • uses photometer

  • 16 different luminance regions should be visualized

  • checks for uniformity


93
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Describe testing for RESOLUTION

  • tools are magnifying glass and TG 18 QC pattern

  • checking line pair patterns


94
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What is REJECT ANALYSIS

checking the rejected images and why they were rejected

95
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What is HEALTH PHYSICS

concerned with providing occupational radiation protection and minimizing radiation dose to the public

96
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What does mGya MEASURE

the INTENSITY of the x-ray beam (milligray in air)

97
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What is NCRP

National Council Radiation Protection

  • makes sure there are numbers maintained that protect safety


98
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What is ALARA

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

99
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What is LNT

Linear Non Threshold

  • x = exposure, y = effect

  • any exposure past 0 is dangerous to pt, there is no safe exposure amount

  • believes that anything past 0 gives an effect

  • linear because effect is proportional to exposure

    • the higher the exposure, the more the effect


100
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As you INCREASE QUANTITY, INTENSITY (mGya) ______

INCREASES

  • direct relationship