Surgery E2: Study Guide

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289 Terms

1
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What labs indicate prerenal azotemia?

urine Na < 20

FENa < 1%

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What labs indicate post-renal dysfunction?

urine Na > 40

FENa > 4%

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What labs indicate intrinsic renal dysfunction?

urine Na > 40

FENa > 1%

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How do you calculate FENa?

[(urine Na x serum Cr) / (urine Cr x serum Na)] x 100

5
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What are sx of testicular torsion?

acute testicular pain or swelling, absence of cremasteric reflex, testicle may be abnormal or lying transverse

6
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What workup is needed for testicular torsion?

STAT scrotal US w/ doppler

STAT uro consult

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What is the tx for testicular torsion?

immediate surgical detorsion & bilateral orchiopexy to the scrotum

*if done w/in < 6 hrs, 90-100% salvage rate

8
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What is the tx for testicular torsion if the testis are nonviable?

orchiectomy

9
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What are the complications of correcting testicular torsion?

loss of testis, infection, infertility, cosmetic deformity, loss or diminished exocrine/endocrine function

10
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What is 1-stage Fowler-Stephens orchiopexy?

*laparoscopic

gonadal vessels are divided and the testis is dissected off a pedicle of the vas deferens to bring it down

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What is 2-stage Fowler-Stephens orchiopexy?

*laparoscopic

clips placed to divide the gonadal vessels, dissection of the testis is deferred for 6 months allowing for optimal development of collaterals before proceeding w/ testicular relocation

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What is 2-stage Shehata technique orchiopexy?

*laparoscopic

performed in 2 stages, has the benefit of relocating intraabdominal testis w/o sacrificing the main testicular vessels

13
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What are potential complications of an orchiopexy?

testicular atrophy, testicular ascent

14
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What are the benefits of orchiopexy?

reduce risk of infertility, corrects patent processus vaginalis (predisposes to hydrocele or hernia), allows for exam of testis (malignancy)

15
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What are sx of an urethral injury?

blood at meatus, painful urination or inability to void, palpable bladder, swelling, hx trauma, uro surg, dyspareunia

16
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What is the workup of an urethral injury?

retrograde urethrogram (gold standard)

*CT preferred if assessing intraabdominal (kidney, ureter, bladder)

17
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What is the tx for an urethral injury?

cystoscopy w/ urethral repair

*leave in post-op foley until completely healed

18
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What are the RF for prostate cancer?

AA, > 60 yo, + FHx in 1st degree relative

19
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What are sx of prostate cancer?

asx early on, elevated PSA, BPH w/ LUTS; advanced → anemia, wt loss, bone pain

20
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What workup is needed for prostate cancer?

prostate biopsy (gold standard) → use Gleason score

DRE, trend PSA, MRI prostate - assign PIRADS score (4-5 = sus)

21
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What is Grade 1 (Gleason score < 6)?

well-formed gland; low risk of cancer

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What is Grade 2 (Gleason 3+4=7)?

predominantly poorly-formed glands w/ lesser component of well-formed glands; intermediate risk of cancer

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What is Grade 3 (Gleason 4+3=7)?

predominantly poorly formed glands; intermediate risk of cancer

*most prostate cancers fall into this group

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What is Grade 4 (Gleason = 8)?

only poorly formed glands; high risk

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What is Grade 5 (Gleason 9 or 10)?

lacks gland formation (or w/ necrosis); high risk

26
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What are surgical tx options for prostate CA?

robotic or laparoscopic-assisted prostatectomy (radical prostatectomy) -offers definitive cure

TURP, open prostatectomy, TUNA

27
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What are complications for prostate surgery?

hematuria post op, painful or difficult urination, infection, retrograde ejaculation, bleeding, impotence, incontinence

28
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What muscles make up the breast?

Pectoralis major: lies beneath breast

Serratus anterior: lateral wall

Rectus abdominis: inferior border

External oblique: anterolateral wall

29
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What provides blood supply to the breast?

anterior perforating intercostal arteries (60%)

lateral thoracic artery (30%)

posterior intercostal arteries (10%)

30
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Where does the majority of breast lymph drain through?

axilla (75%), lymph drainage occurs first to a lower lymph node level and proceeds on to higher levels

31
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What are the 4 nerves to be aware of during axillary dissection?

long thoracic, thoracodorsal, medial pectoral, lateral pectoral

32
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What are the RF for breast cancer?

inc age, + FHx breast or ovarian CA, HRT, alcohol consumption, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, radiation exposure

33
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What are sx of breast CA?

U/L spontaneous nipple discharge, noncyclic pain, firm fixed mass, complex findings on imaging, Peau d’orange

34
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What is lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)?

RF for development of breast cancer, conforms to the outline of the normal lobule w/ expanded and filled acini

35
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What is ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)?

pre-invasive form of ductal CA

36
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What is infiltrating ductal carcinoma?

90% of invasive breast CA, tends to grow as a cohesive mass and appears as discrete abnormalities on mammogram

*Paget’s: skin involvement

37
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What is infiltrating lobular carcinoma?

10% of breast CA, difficult to detect, tends to grow in a single file nature

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What is tubular carcinoma?

usually low grade lesions, account for 1-2% breast CA

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What is the workup for breast CA?

mammogram -MC screening

US -good at assessing size and consistency of lumps; used for guided needle biopsy

MRI -sensitive at describing abnormalities

40
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

incomplete; needs additional imaging

0

41
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

negative; symmetrical and no masses or suspicious calcifications

1

42
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

benign; 0% probability of malignancy

2

43
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

probably benign; < 2% probability of malignancy

3

44
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

suspicious; 2-95% probability of malignancy

4

45
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

high suggestive of malignancy

5

46
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Which BI-RADS risk score:

known biopsy proven malignancy

6

47
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What are MRIs good for ?

dense breasts, scar tissue, implants; used for local staging for DCIS and lobular cancer

*sensitivity & specificity may be greater than that of a mammogram

48
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How is breast CA diagnosed?

fine needle aspiration FNA, core needle biopsy, stereotactic biopsy, US guided biopsy, excisional biopsy

49
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How is breast CA staged?

TNM

50
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What is a lumpectomy?

excision of breast lump w/ a surrounding rim of normal breast tissue

51
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What is a simple mastectomy?

removes breast tissue, nipple, areola, and skin, but not all of the lymph nodes

52
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What is a modified radical mastectomy?

affected breast is removed as well as part of the axillary lymph system (levels 1 & 2), underlying muscle is preserved

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What is a radical mastectomy?

affected breast, all lymphatic drainage and underlying pectoral muscles are removed

54
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What are indications for a lumpectomy?

equivocal patho on biopsy, category 3 or 4 mass, DCIS or invasive breast CA that is amenable to breast conserving therapy based on the size

55
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What lumpectomy incision is ideal for central lumps?

periareolar

56
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What lumpectomy incision is ideal for peripheral lumps?

curvilinear

57
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What are complications of a lumpectomy?

hematoma, infection, poor cosmesis, re-excision

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What is a skin sparing mastectomy?

breast tissue, nipple and areola only removed

59
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What is a nipple-sparing mastectomy?

option for early stage > 2cm away from nipple/areola

60
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What are indications for a mastectomy?

advanced malignant tumors, Paget’s disease of the breast, multifocal or multicentric disease w/ chest wall involvement, inflammatory breast CA, hx lumpectomy w/ + margins, prophylactic for BRCA1, BRCA2, p53 carriers

61
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What incision is used for a radical mastectomy?

elliptical

62
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What are complications of a mastectomy?

seroma, hematoma, wound infection, skin flap breakdown or necrosis, lymphedema

63
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What can be done intraoperatively to identify involved lymph nodes and help stage cancer?

lymphatic mapping and sentinel node biopsy

64
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What nerve can be injured during axillary dissection resulting in weakening or paralysis of the serratus anterior mm?

long thoracic nerve → “winged” scapula, limited ability to lift arm above head, scapula “pops” out when pt pushes against resistance

65
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Breast surgery can cause an obstruction of lymph flow. What are sx of the resulting lymphedema?

usually progresses distal → proximal, pigmentation changes, ulceration, fibrosis → thick rough skin

66
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What is the secondary lymphedema?

from surgical removal of lymph nodes or from lymphatic destruction by radiation

67
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What is the tx for lymphedema?

external pneumatic devices, elastic garments, exercise, diuretics, massage

68
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What is the follow up protocol after tx of breast CA?

B/L mammograms 6 mos post completion of RT following lumpectomy; then yearly

C/L mammograms yearly after modified radical mastectomy

serial exams every 3-6 mos x 3 yrs, then annually

69
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Which type of free flaps removes tissue from the lower abd to use for breast reconstruction?

Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforators (DIEP) -uses autologous tissue w/ perforators and blood vessels

Superficial Inferior Epigastric Artery (SIEA) -removes skin and fat

70
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What are sx of fibroadenoma?

painless, unilateral, benign solid mass, highly mobile, firm-rubbery masses, typically shrink after menopause, MC 14-35 yo

71
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What is the tx for fibroadenomas?

asx and small → observance and reassurance

lumpectomy or excisional biopsy, cryoablation

72
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What are sx of phyllodes tumor?

unilateral, firm, enlarging, painless, may stretch overlying skin and show distension of veins, 1-45 cm, continuum benign → malignant, 40-50 yo

*high recurrence rate and metastatic potential

73
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What are Phyllodes tumors linked to?

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

74
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What is the workup for a Phyllodes tumor?

mammogram: round lobulated dense mass

US: hypoechoic, partially circumscribed mass w/ post enhancement, inc vacularity

MRI: lobulated mass w/ hyperintense fluid

75
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What is the tx for Phyllodes tumor?

surgery → side local excision w/ > 1 cm margins

*large tumor = mastectomy

76
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What is a Type 1 (sliding) hiatal hernia?

95% of cases; GEJ slides into the mediastinum; only significant when gastric acid is refluxed into the lower esophagus

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What is a Type 2 (paraesophageal) hiatal hernia?

part of the stomach migrates into the mediastinum parallel to the esophagus; reflux is uncommon; fundus can become incarcerated

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What is a type 3 (sliding & paraesophageal) hiatal hernia?

both GEJ and portion of the stomach have migrated into the mediastinum

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What is a Type 4 hiatal hernia?

stomach and additional organs (bowel, spleen) herniate into the chest

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What are RF for hiatal hernias?

elderly, elevated intra abdominal pressure, COPD, previous surgeries

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How do hiatal hernias present?

typically present for GERD workup; heartburn is most common complaint; dysphagia, regurgitation

82
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When is surgery indicated for hiatal hernias?

pts w/ severe esophageal injury, Barrett’s, persistent sx despite medical management, gastric volvus

83
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What is Nissen fundoplication?

*for hiatal hernias

360 degree wrap of the fundus of the stomach to restore the LES/GEJ

84
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What is Partial fundoplication (Dor and Toupet)?

*for hiatal hernias

anterior vs posterior wrap respectively

85
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What is Hill repair?

*for hiatal hernias

restores GEJ w/ posterior anchoring to the median arcuate ligament

86
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What is Belsey surgical method?

*for hiatal hernias

uses a thoracic approach

87
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What test can detect moderate/severe esophagitis, strictures, hiatal hernias, and tumors?

Barium swallow

88
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What is the gold standard for dx GERD?

24hr pH monitoring

89
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What is the tx for Barrett’s esophagus?

radiofrequency ablation for low or high grade dysplasia; cryotherapy

90
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When is surgery indicated for GERD?

failed medical management or wish to discontinue, underlying hiatal hernia

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What are surgical options for GERD?

Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication vs anterior approach; bariatric surgery

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What are benefits of laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication?

85% of pts will have sx relief & healing of esophagitis, medical costs > costs w/in 10 yrs, pts may need to continue H2 blockers or PPI post op

93
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What are complications of laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication?

secondary dysphagia, slipped wrap, recurrent heartburn, gastric distension, nausea → inability to tolerate PO

94
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What are RF for squamous cell carcinoma?

smoking, alcohol consumption, diet low in fruits and vegetables, HPV

95
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What are RF for adenocarcinoma?

Barrett’s esophagus, GERD, obesity, smoking

96
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What are sx of esophageal CA?

dysphagia, anorexia, wt loss, odynophagia, constant mid-back or mic-chest pain, retrosternal discomfort, hoarseness

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What workup needs to be done for esophageal CA?

barium swallow, CT/PET, endoscopic US (FNA suspicious lymph nodes)

98
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What staging is used for esophageal CA?

TNM

99
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What is the tx for esophageal CA?

chemo ± surgery (en bloc esophagectomy)

*< 20% 5 yr survival rate

100
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What are sx of achalasia?

dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food, CP, nocturnal cough, heartburn, wt loss