Lab procedures from workbook

leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrate rxn on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the px may have

bacterial infection

what gland is the most active producer of corticosteroids

adrenal glands

the gland function that is evaluated by measuring blood cortisol levels before and after admin of ACTH is the

adrenal gland

struvite crystals are composed of

magnesium ammonium phosphates

the gland that is evaluated by measuring blood levels of T3 and T4 is the

thyroid gland

measurement of blood levels of TSH and ACTH is used to evaluate the function of the

• thyroid gland

• pituitary gland

• adrenal gland

pituitary gland

which of the following statements regarding creatinine is false

it is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN

a good initial urinary screening test for suspected Cushings disease is

• ALT/cortisol ratio

• BUN/creatinine ratio

• Creatinine/ALT ratio

• Cortisol/creatinin ratio

cortisol/creatinine ratio

measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate the function of the

pancreas

which WBC is known as the first line of defense after a microorganism has first entered the body

neutrophil

the red top tube should be left to clot for

30 mins

the mucin clot test is performed on

joint fluid

when preparing cytology samples are microscopic evals what is the best technique to use

squash prep

the main function of neutrophils is

• destruction of other cells

• phagocytosis

• type I response

phagocytosis

in what species are the platelets normally larger than the RBC

feline

term for RBC formation

erythropoiesis

list red blood cells from most immature to most mature

• rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

• rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte

• erythrocyte, reticulocyte, rubricyte, rubriblast

rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

it is important to keep cytology samples and unstained sides away from

formalin

which term refers to an infestation with lice

pediculosis

what is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm

hydatid cyst

what canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus which may then become neoplastic

• Fasciola hepatica

• Spirocerca

• Dioctophyme renale

spirocerca (esophageal worm)

which of the following is not zoonotic

a. toxoplasma

b. echinococcus

c. dipylidium

d. giardia

b. echinococcus

which parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals

hookworms

function of megakaryocytes

• produce RBCs

• destroy RBCs

• produce thrombocytes

• destroy thrombocytes

produces thrombocytes

what is not associated with a responsive anemia

poikilocytosis

what large cell w multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow

• osteoblast

• osteoclast

• osteocyte

osteoclast

what marrow finding is consistent with a responsive anemia

erythroid hyperplasia

which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism

von willebrand’s

in what species is ketonuria most commonly found

bovine

what is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment exam

renal cell

for glucosuria to occur, which of the following must also be present

• hyperglycemia

• hypoglycemia

hyperglycemia

which urolith is becoming quite common in cats

oxalate

what substance increases in the urine during glomerular disease

• sodium

• nitrogen

• potassium

• protein

protein

which breed of dog has the most problems with uric acid stones

dalmations

what is a disadvantage of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

titer detection

xylitol ingestion may result in which conditions

• hyperphosphatemia

• hypophosphatemia

• hyperkalemia

• A and C

• B and A

hyper and hypophosphatemia

what is the main constituent of a struvite crystal

magnesium phosphate

which is not considered an electrolyte

• sodium

• magnesium

• calcium

• chloride

• magnesium

calcium

hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder

• hyperthyroid

• hypothyeroid

• hyperadrenocorticism

• hypoadrenocorticism

hypoadrenocorticism

how do transfusion rxns in the cat differ from transfusion rxns in the dog

transfusions are more severe in cats

a monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as

• the feathered edge

• area where cells overlap and clump

• area where no cells overlap or clump

• start of the blood smear

cells with no overlapping or touching

prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in

increased serum phosphorus

phagocytes include all of the following except

lymphocytes

which is not a function of the lymphatic system

leukocyte production

what organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions

spleen

what organ releases T cells

• pituitary

• hypothalamus

• thymus

• liver

thymus

what would not cause shifts or trends in quality-control data

change in lab personnel

what error is not detectable thru the use of a quality-control program

poor technique

to separate serum whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at

• 2500 rpm for 5 mins

• 2500 rpm for 10 mins

• 3000 rpm for 5 mins

• 3000 rpm for 10 mins

2500 rpm for 10 mins

as a general rule enough blood should be collected to run any test at least 3 times. this compensates for all except

transcription error

a serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of

bilirubin

what does DEA stand for in terms of canine blood

dog erythrocyte antigen

in dogs and cats the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are

• BUN and creatinine

• GGT and ALT

• ALT and AST

alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate amniotransferase (AST)

blood chem assays including dye excretion, ammonia tolerance, and bile acid []s are used to evaluate the function of the

liver

in horses the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are

• ALP and ALT

• BUN and creatinine

• GGT and sorbitol dehydrogenase

• GGT and ALP

GGT and sorbitol dehydrogenase

which of the following is not a disadvantage of using the PCR testing in equine medicine

sensitivity of the test

which parasite could cause anemia in horses thru blood sucking

• Ascarids

• Pinworms

• Strongylus vulgaris

Strongylus vulgaris

basophilic stippling is often associated with

lead poisoning

fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to __ and still contain clotting factors

12 months

what cell produces antibodies

• T cells

• B cells

• plasma cells

plasma cell

fresh frozen plasma must be separated and frozen w/in __ hours to maintain all coagulation factors in normal concentrations

8

what is the name for a nonnucleated, immature erythrocyte found in small numbers in the peripheral blood of dogs

• spherocyte

• rubriblast

• lymphocyte

• reticulocyte

reticulocyte

what sample is recommended for hemoglobin testing

whole blood

what bart of the CBC is the most accurate procedure

hematocrit

what would you expect to see on a diff-quik stained blood smear from an animal with regenerative anemia

polychromasia

which is a breakdown production of hemoglobin

• creatinine

• proteins

• bilirubin

• amylase

bilirubin

what type of anemia is associated with icterus

hemolytic

an MCV value below the normal reference range suggests

microcytosis

what is indicated by a neutrophil that includes a nucleus with 6 lobes

it is an old cell

with the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to __ of their body weight

7%

what is tested in a minor crossmatch

recipient erythrocytes against donor serum

what structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells

• nucleolus

• ribosomes

• mitochondria

nucleolus

what is the primary function of fibrinogen

• hemostasis

• hemopoiesis

hemostasis

an increased number of bands in the peripheral blood indicate

left shift

which immunoglobulin is hte only one that can cross the placenta

IgG

which of the following correctly lists the progressive stages of phagocytosis

• adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion

• chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion

• chemotaxis, ingestion, adherence, digestion

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion

myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with

• megaesophagus

• exercise intolerance

• aspiration pneumonia

• all

megaesophagus, exercise intolerance, aspiration pneumonia

what cells are chiefly concerned with the production and secretion of antibodies

• B lymphocytes

• T cells

• thrombocytes

• platelets

B lymphocytes

serology is the branch of science involved with detection of

• antibodies

• antigens

• both

• neither

antibodies or antigens

which statement concerning ELISA testing is true

• The test specificity is very low

• Washing is a critical step in the
  methodology

• It may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum

• it is not available in kit form

washing is a critical step in the methodology

which of the pig parasite can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy

• Ascaris suum

• Trichinella spiralis

• Trichuris suis

Trichinella spiralis

which parasite is a tape worm

a. S. westeri

b. P. mamillana

c. P. equorum

d. O. equi

Paranoplocephala mamillana

pemphigus is a group of autoimmune disorders that affect the

• cardiovascular system

• lungs and diaphragm

• skin and oral mucosa

• kidneys and liver

skin and oral mucosa

signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia include

petechiae

Ecchymoses

anemia

which cell is the most immature

a. rubricyte

b. metarubricyte

c. prorubricyte

d. reticulocyte

prorubricyte

Baylisascaris procyonis larvae have been shown to cause __ in humans

brain damage

hemagglutination is

clumping of erythrocytes

a neutrophil w a four-segmented nucleus is classified as a

normal neutrophil

acid-fast stains are used to ID

• mycobacteria

• gram-positive bacteria

• gram-negative bacteria

• acid-fast bacteria

mycobacteria

what cells are sensitized by IgE to produce large quantities of histamines

• mast cells

• basophils

• eosinophils

• all

• A and B

• A and C

mast cells and basophils

T killer cells recognize

cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them

cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways except

a. not becoming infected at all

b. becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity, and overcoming the infection

c. becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely w/o becoming ill

d. becoming infected, becoming ill w/in 3 days and dying w/in a week

becoming infected, becoming ill w/in 3 days and dying w/in a week

acid fast stain is used to ID the organism that causes

tuberculosis

a positive catalase test will be indicated by the presence of

bubbles

generally, endotoxins are products of

• gram-negative bacteria

• gram-positive bacteria

• acid-fast bacteria

gram-negative bacteria

dipylidium caninum is a

• nematode

• trematode

• cestode

cestode

the ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of

• female adult heartworms

• microfilaria

• past heart worm infection

female adult heartworms

Otodectes cynotis is a

• arthropod

• nematoda

• chordata

arthropod

a dog becomes infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of

infected fleas

the most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis (tapeworm) is a

• rat

• rabbit

• cat

• dog

rabbit