Westgard, Evaluation Methods, and Reference Values

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225 Terms

1
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Who developed Westgard rules

James Westgard

2
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What does Multi rule Quality Control use

a combo of decision criteria and or a combo of control rules sequentially

3
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What type of control materials are used in Westgard rules

Level 1 and Level 2

4
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How are decisions made in Westgard Rules

they are made in a sequential fashion

5
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What is the main purpose of using Westgard Rules

its allows the determination of whether an analytical run is in control or out of control

6
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How does the accuracy of Westgard Rules compare to a L-J Chart

Westgard provides better accuracy when used with single control rules

7
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How are most quality control rules expressed in Westgard rules

they are expressed as N^L

8
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What does N represent in Westgard Rules

the number of control observations or runs to be evaluated

9
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What does L represent in Westgard rules

the statistical limit for evaluating the control observations

10
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When are Multirule quality control used

when there are 2 levels of control material are being analyzed per run

11
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What are Westgard rules designed to do

minimize false alarms or false rejections and increase error detection

12
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What is Westgard 12S rule

The warning rule where one of the two controls results falls outside ± 2SD

13
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What is the purpose of the 12S warning rule

it alerts techs to possible problems

14
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Does the 12S rule automatically reject a run

No, because this deviation can happen by chance

15
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What must be done after an 12S rule alert

The 13s rule must then be evaluated and the process of evaluation must continue sequentially

16
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Which Westgard Rule is this

12S or Warning rule

17
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What is the Westgard 13S rule

when either of the two control material fall outside of ± 3SD

18
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What does a violation of rule 13S indicate

it is an indication of a random error

19
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What should be done if rule 13S is violated

the run must be rejected

20
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What is done if rule 13S is not violated

the next rule 22S should be checked and the evaluation should continue in a sequential order

21
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Which rule is this

13S

22
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What is the Westgard rule 22S

when two consecutive quality control results exceed ± 2SD on same side of the mean

23
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When can 22S rule be violated

Within the same run or across consecutive runs

24
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Can the patient results be reported if rule 22S is violated

NO

25
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What is required if 22S rule is violated

Corrective action must be taken

26
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What rule is being violated

22S, the mean of level 1 and 2 are below -2SD on graph 1 and the run on the second graph exceeds +2SD across run day 4&5

27
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What does a violation of the 22S rule indicate

a systemic error

28
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What is the Westgard rule R4S

a range rule when one control exceeds the mean by -2SD and the other control exceeds the mean +2SD the range between the two results will exceed 4SD

29
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What does a violation of the R4S rule indicate

a random error within the current run and not across run

30
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Which rule is being violated

rule R4S

31
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What is the Westgard 41S rule

when four consecutive control rules are greater than ± 1SD on the same side of the mean

32
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What does the 41S rule require for evaluation

control data from previous runs

33
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How does the 41S rule apply within a single control material

it indicates systemic bias within level one control results in a single area of the method curve

34
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How does the 41S rule apply across control materials

when applied across level one and two in combination with each showing two consecutive results greater than ± 1SD on the same side of the mean it indicates systemic error over a greater concentration

35
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Which rule is being violated

41S where on the first graph there are 4 consecutive rules being violated only on one level indicating systemic error in one error, whereas the second graph shows 4 consecutive rules being violated in two levels which indicates systemic error in greater broad concentration

36
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What is the Westgard 10X rule

when 10 consecutive QC results for one level of control are on one side of the mean

37
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How does the 10X rules apply to one level of control

a violation occurs if all 10 consecutive results from that level fall on the same side of the mean

38
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How does 10X apply to two levels of control

a violation occurs if five consecutive results from each level are on the same side of the mean

39
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What does the 10X rule require for evaluation

it requires control data from previous runs

40
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What rule is being violated

10X rule where graph one shows that all 10 consecutive runs are all on the same side of the mean on one level, and the second graph shows two levels running 5 consecutive runs each on the same side of the mean

41
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What are indicators of systemic error in quality control

the two main indicators are Trends and Shifts in control data

42
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What are trends in systematic errors

they are gradual increase or decrease in control values over time similar to a chronic condition

43
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What are causes of trends in systematic errors

  1. Reagent of standard deterioration

  2. Gradual accumulation of debris in the sample or reagent delivery system

  3. Deterioration of the instrument light source or performance

  4. Aging or deterioration of QC materials

44
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What direction can trends take

upward or downward

45
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What are shifts in systematic errors

a sudden change in values in one direction, similar to an acute condition

46
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What are some causes of shifts in systematic errors

  1. Use of new reagents

  2. Malfunction in the instrument or major maintenance

  3. Inaccurate calibration or recalibration

  4. Failure in sample/reagent delivery system

47
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What direction can shifts take

negative or positive deviation

48
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What is the traffic light rule

warning rule means to use other rules to inspect control points for further evaluation, and rejection rule indicates that the process is out of control, requiring immediate corrective action

49
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What should be done if a rejection rule is violated

  1. stop testing immediate

  2. Identify, correct and document the problem

  3. Repeat testing on patient samples and controls

  4. Do not report results

50
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When can you report results when a rule is rejected

  1. until the problem is solved

  2. until controls indicate proper performance

51
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When should you follow policies and procedures

for remedial action and troubleshooting

52
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What does solving “out of control” problems include

  1. Retest the same control

  2. Retest a fresh aliquot of the same control material

  3. Reconstitute/thaw a new vial of control material and retest

  4. Replace faulty reagents/ check reagent lot

  5. Look for instrument - related mechanical faults

  6. Recalibrate the assay ( asses linear response which is the signal or absorbance/concentration)

  7. Consult the QC officer and/ or supervisor for further direction

53
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What organizations set quality control standards

JCAHO, CLIA, and CAP

54
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What do JCAHO, CLIA, and CAP stand for

  1. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Organizations

  2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments

  3. College of American Pathologist

55
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What QC requirements are set by JCAHO, CLIA, and CAP

  1. The number of control value run/day (CLIA guidelines)

  2. Documentation of QC results

  3. Proficiency testing as part of quality assessment

  4. Standard operating procedures (SOPs) for testing

  5. Training and refresher courses for staff

56
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What is the minimum number of control materials that must be run each day according to CLIA guidelines

according to CLIA 88’ at least two control samples of different concentrations must be tested every 24 hours

57
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What are examples of QC guideline for blood gas testing

  1. Test both high/low blood gas control materials

  2. This must be tested every 24 hours

  3. At least one blood gas control sample must be tested every 8 hours

  4. At least one control must be tested each time a patient sample is tested

58
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What should be included in QC documentation

  1. Record all information good/bad

  2. Record all corrective action

59
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What is proficiency testing

a QC requirement process by which stimulated patient specimens made from a common pool are used to validate a laboratory performance in testing process

60
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Who requires proficiency testng

CAP, CLIA, and JCAHO

61
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What is the purpose of proficiency testing

to maintain lab accreditation

62
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What are the steps for proficiency testing

  1. A series of unknown samples is sent to lab from program

  2. Samples are analyzed in the same manner as patient samples

  3. Results are reported to program

  4. Results are complied with results from all other labs participating in survey

  5. Performance report is sent back to each participating lab

63
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What are strict requirements for proficiency testing

  1. Labs must incorporate PT into its routine workflow as much as possible

  2. Test values/samples must not be shared with other labs at any time

  3. PT samples are tested by bench technical staff only who normally do patient testing and should be completed within usual time

64
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What is personnel competency and training apart of

QC requirement

65
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What do personnel competency and training address

the importance of people training and education

66
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What are CLIA’S components for laboratory competency assessment

  1. Timing of training and guidelines for competence assessment (frequency/Interval)

  2. Design of in service training program (workshop) via internet/ zoom conferencing

  3. Needs assessment of gap analysis (area of defect)

  4. Utility and economy of internet based in service training

67
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What is the purpose of a CLSI (clinical and lab standards institute) defined procedure document

it is a QC requirement document of an analytical procedure and promotes development and use of consensus standards

68
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What should a SOP document include

  1. Test name

  2. Method principal

  3. Significance of test

  4. Patient preparation

  5. Test specimen requirements

  6. Equipment and materials needed

  7. Reagent preperation

  8. Test procedure

  9. Calculations

  10. Quality control procedures

  11. Reference intervals

  12. Panic values

  13. Limitations of the procedure

  14. References (including the instrument user’s manual)

69
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How often should the procedure be reviewed, signed, and dated

annually

70
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What are new quality initiatives

programs used to ensure incorporation of QM and QA principals into daily operations

71
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What is the purpose of New Quality initiatives

eliminate defects and improve processes

72
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What is the relationship between QM and QA in these initiatives

they are a continuous improvement process

73
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What is SIX SIGMA

a QC process that business use to eliminate defects and improve processes

74
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What are other examples of New Quality intiaitve

  1. Lean Production -used in manufacturing to eliminate defects and improve processes

  2. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 9000

  3. Joint Committee for Traceability in Laboratory Medicine

75
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Why do we evaluate method performance in clinical laboratories

to assess how well new methods compare to existing methods

76
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Why is it important to evaluate method performance

because the agreement between clinical lab test results and the clinical diagnosis is indispensable

77
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Why do we evaluate laboratory test methods

  1. To assess clinical performance of methods

  2. To assess characteristics of the test methods

  3. How well they detect disease when disease is present (Sensitivity)'

  4. How well they do not detect when disease is absent (specifically)

78
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What does the agreement between clinical lab test result and clinical diagnosis ultimately establish

definitive diagnosis

79
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What is an important consideration during evaluation of test methods

it will ensure achievement of definitive diagnosis using reliable clinical methods

80
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What do evaluation of test methods provide

an indication of test performance

81
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What is the “million dollar question” in clinical testing

What are the tools for representing extent of agreement

82
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The extent of agreement of test results with patient diagnosis or clinical diagnosis is represented in which ways or how well does the test results agree with the doctors diagnosis

  1. Clinical sensitivity

  2. Clinical specificity

  3. Efficiency

  4. Predictive values

    • Positive Predictive Value

    • Negative Predicative Value

  5. Receiver operating characteristics (ROC) charts

  6. Odds ratio

  7. Likelihood ratios (LH)

    • Positive LH

    • Negative LH

83
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What does sensitivity measure in clinical testing

how well a test detects the presence of disease in people who actually have it.

84
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How is sensitivity related to disease

it is the percentage of people with a disease

85
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What does sensitivity detect

the true positive or TP

86
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What is FPR

the quantity 1-specficity

87
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What is FNR

the quantity 1-sensitivity

88
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What is the formula for Specificity

TRUE NEG/ TRUE NEG + FALSE POS

89
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What is the formula for Sensitivity

TRUE POS/ TRUE POS+ FALSE NEG

90
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What is a sensitive test (method)

one that rarely miss people who have the disease which means it will have few false negatives

91
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Why is sensitive testing important in Cushing Syndrome

because the syndrome is caused by excess cortisol it can be fatal if misdiagnosed

92
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Therefore, in order to avoid misdiagnosis the sensitive test method must have …

high sensitivity with few false negatives

93
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How is specificity related to health

it is the percentage of people without the disease when correctly predicted by the test

94
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What does specificity measure

how well the test is at calling uninfected people negative

95
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What does specificity detect

it detects true negative or TP

96
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A specific test will…

rarely misclassify people without the disease and will have few false positives

97
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Why is specificity important in cystic fibrosis

the disease is serious and is not curable (affects babies) and if a FP is obtained it can lead to psychological and economic trauma to the patient and parents

98
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Therefore, in order to avoid misdiagnosis the specific test method must have …

the highest specificity with few false positives

99
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Clinical sensitivity and specificity test can be

Dichotomous (qualitative or binary, descriptive) or Continuous (quantitative data)

100
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What is a dichotomous test

a type of test that has defined variables (two possible outcomes or results), such as pos/neg, 1 or 0, or present or absent