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iron deficiency anemia
serum ferritin: decreased
Serum iron: decreased/normal
TIBC: increased
Transferrin saturation: decreased
FEP/ZPP: increased
sTfR: increased
Hg content of retics: decreased
BM iron (Prussian blue reaction): no stainable iron
Sideroblasts in BM: none
increased
TIBC level in IDA is ________ (increased/decreased/normal?)
increased
sTfR level in IDA is ________ (increased/decreased/normal?)
beta-thalassemia minor
serum ferritin: increased/normal
Serum iron: increased/normal
TIBC: normal
Transferrin saturation: increased/normal
FEP/ZPP: normal
sTfR: normal
Hg content of retics: decreased
BM iron (Prussian blue reaction): increased/normal
Sideroblasts in BM: normal
anemia of chronic inflammation
serum ferritin: increased/normal
Serum iron: decreased
TIBC: decreased
Transferrin saturation: decreased/normal
FEP/ZPP: increased
sTfR: normal
Hg content of retics: decreased
BM iron (Prussian blue reaction): increased/normal
Sideroblasts in BM: none/very few
Other special tests: specific tests for inflammatory disorders or malignancy
sideroblastic anemia
serum ferritin: increased
Serum iron: increased
TIBC: decreased/normal
Transferrin saturation: increased
FEP/ZPP: increased
sTfR: normal
Hg content of retics: normal
BM iron (Prussian blue reaction): increased
Sideroblasts in BM: increased (ring)
true
True or false: In IDA, ferritin levels begin to decrease in stage 1.
stage 2
At what stage of iron deficiency does TIBC begin to increase?
stage 3
At what stage of iron deficiency does the hemoglobin test decrease?
hepcidin
increased ______ inhibits iron absorption from intestines and iron release from macrophages/hepatocytes
normochromic, normocytic
rbc morphology in anemia of chronic inflammation
true
True or false: lead inhibits ALA dehydratase leading to accumulation of ALA
4.00-6.00 Ă— 10^6/uL
ASCP reference index for RBC count
Vitamin B12 deficiency
serum MMA is increased in…..
pernicious anemia
an autoimmune disease in which an autoantibody is raised against IF (intrinsic factor) or gastric parietal cells
ineffective erythropoiesis
Why is the reticulocyte count low in megaloblastic anemia?
Schilling test
test used to distinguish cobalamin deficiency due to malabsorption, dietary deficiency, or absence of IF
Diphyllobothrium latum
What parasite may be responsible for a patient’s vitamin B12 deficiency?
pernicious anemia
An H. pylori infection may cause _______________ (type of anemia) by destroying parietal cells.
>7.5%
In stage one of the Schilling test, what result indicates normal B12 absorption?
12.0-18.0 g/dL
hemoglobin ASCP reference index
35-50%
ASCP reference range for HCT
76-100 fL
MCV ASCP reference range
26-34 pg
MCH ASCP reference range
32-36 g/dL
MCHC ASCP reference range
11.5-14.5%
RDW ASCP reference range
transferrin
Fe transport protein
ferritin
major Fe storage form
Hemosiderin
H2O insoluble Fe storage form (long-term)
Hemoglobin A (Hgb A)
Type of hemoglobin which comprises 97% of adult hemoglobin
HCT/RBC x 10
formula for MCV
HB/RBC x 10
formula for MCH
HB/HCT x 100
formula for MCHC
spherocytes
main abnormal RBC formed in extravascular (macrophage-mediated) hemolysis
schistocytes
main abnormal RBC formed in intravascular (fragmentation) hemolysis
anemia, splenomegaly, jaundice
triad of conditions seen in hereditary spherocytosis
hereditary spherocytosis
intrinsic RBC defect which involves mutations in proteins which maintain vertical attachements
ankyrin, spectrin
most of the protein mutations in hereditary spherocytosis are in ______ and _______
false
True or False: LDH is decreased in hereditary spherocytosis
hereditary spherocytosis
decrease in fluorescence in eosin-5’-maleimide binding test by flow cytometry is an expected result for which RBC defect?
hereditary elliptocytosis
rbc defects in horizontal interactions
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin (PNH)
rare chronic IV hemolytic anemia, acquired membrane defect
RBCs lack CD55 and CD59
absence of CD55 and CD59 renders RBCs susceptible to spontaneous lysis complement
CD55 and CD59 detection by flow cytometry
confirmatory test for PNH
G6PD deficiency
RBC deficiency which prevents the production of NADPH
oxidants would build up, leading to premature hemolysis
What happens if G6PD is missing in RBCs?
G6PD deficiency
moderate to severe, usually normochromic/normocytic
with severe variants: marked anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, spherocytosis, and schistocytosis
Bite cells (not specific), Heinze bodies (denaturated Hb, only with supravital staining)
Profound reticulocytosis (up to 30%)
Very low serum haptoglobin, high indirect bilirubin, high LDH, increased plasma Hb (IV hemolysis)
PK deficiency
__________ causes premature destruction of RBCs — without ___, depletion of ATP results in lack of membrane integrity
Clinical presentation: anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly & gallstones (chronic hemolysis)
neonates: severe anemia
adults: severe to compensated
PBS: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, polychromasia, Burr cells
immune hemolytic anemia
IgM mediated hemolysis can result in both extravascular and intravascular hemolysis
IgG mediated hemolysis is predominantly extravascular → RBCs removed by macrophages in the spleen/liver
DAT: positive
warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Immunoglobulin: IgG
Optimum reactivity temperature of autoantibody: 37ÂşC
Sensitization detected by DAT: IgG or IgG + complement
Complement activation: variable
Hemolysis: Extravascular primarily
Autoantibody specificity: Panreactive
Other laboratory findings: Polychromasia, spherocytes
cold agglutinin disease (CAD)
Immunoglobulin: IgM
Optimum reactivity temperature of autoantibody: 4ÂşC
Sensitization detected by DAT: Complement
Complement activation: Yes
Hemolysis: Extravascular; some intravascular
Autoantibody specificity: I (most), i (some), Pr (rare)
Other laboratory findings: RBC agglutination may be present; hemoglobinuria
paroxysmal cold hemoglobin (PCH)
Immunoglobulin: IgG
Optimum reactivity temperature of autoantibody: 4ÂşC
Sensitization detected by DAT: Complement
Complement activation: Yes
Hemolysis: Intravascular
Autoantibody specificity: P (Donath-Landsteiner Ab)
Other laboratory findings: Polychromasia, spherocytes, schistocytes, NRBCs, anisocytes, poikilocytosis; hemoglobinuria; Anti-P positive
lead poisoning (sideroblastic anemia)
urine ALA is high in _____
hemolytic uremia syndrome
caused by bacteria that produce Shiga toxin
the most common cause of disease is ingestion of improperly cooked meat especially in children
the endothelial cell damage: activation of platelets, formation of platelet-fibrin thrombi, blockages in the microvasculature of the glomeruli, acute renal failure
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
a type of MAHA which is caused by a deficiency of ADAMTS13
hemoglobinuria (fragmentation hemolysis)
What does root beer-colored urine indicate?
false
True or false: In the heterozygous state of Hb E, there is a mean MCV of 55 fL
Hb SC
Which hemoglobinopathy has the following PBS findings:
N/N anemia
Increased polychromasia
The reticulocyte count is 3% to 5%. Few sickle cells
Targets, folded cells
Intraerythrocytic blunt-ended crystals
“mitten cells” or “hand in glove”
A2, E, O
Hb C migrates with __________ on alkaline electrophoresis
D, G
Hb S migrates with _____ on alkaline electrophoresis.
alkaline
______ electrophoresis must be done first and is enough to diagnose SS, AS, and thalassemia
HPLC
test involving separation and identification of both normal and variant hemoglobins is achieved based on varying ionic strength.
Hb Bart’s
Excess gamma (Îł) chains form what type of Hb? (Îł4)
True
True or false: Hb Bart’s has a very high oxygen affinity.
alpha
What type of thalassemia (beta or alpha) affects fetus and newborns?
beta-thalassemia silent carrier (heterozygous state)
type of beta-thalassemia with no hematologic abnormalities or clinical symptoms
beta-thalassemia minor (heterozygous state)
type of beta-thalassemia with mild hemolytic anemia, microcytic and hypochromic RBCs, and no clinical symptoms
beta-thalassemia major (homozygous or compound heterozygous state)
type of beta-thalassemia with severe hemolytic anemia, microcytic and hypochromic RBCs, severe clinical symptoms, and transfusion dependence
beta-thalassemia intermedia
type of beta-thalassemia with mild to moderate hemolytic anemia, microcytic and hypochromic RBCs, moderate clinical symptoms, and non-transfusion dependence
Hb H
hemoglobin which forms from excess beta chains as a result of the deletion of three alpha-globin genes
haptoglobin
glycoprotein which binds to free hemoglobin in blood circulation
Hb F
92-95% of the hemoglobin in beta-thal major patients is _____
Mentzer ratio
calculated index used to help with differentiation of IDA from beta-thalassemia minor
MCV/RBC count
calculation for Mentzer ratio
beta-thalassemia minor
If the Mentzer ratio is <13, the diagnosis favors _______.
iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
If the Mentzer ratio is >13, the diagnosis favors ______.
silent carrier
If only one alpha gene deletion is present, the patient is a ________ of alpha-thalassemia
alpha-thalassemia minor
a heterozygous alpha gene deletion (--/ɑɑ) results in what type of alpha-thalassemia
alpha-thalassemia minor
a homozygous alpha gene deletion (-É‘/-É‘) results in what type of alpha-thalassemia?
alpha-thalassemia intermedia/Hb H disease
deletion of three alpha chains (--/-É‘) results in which type of alpha-thalassemia/what condition?
alpha-thalassemia intermedia
Hb H disease is also referred to as…?
hydrops fetalis (É‘ thal major)
Deletion of all alpha genes (- - / - -) results in what condition?
Hb Bart
Type of Hb which is present at 5-15% in newborn individuals with alpha-thalassemia minor.
alpha thalassemia
Are Hb H inclusions present as a result of alpha or beta thalassemia?
decreased
serum haptoglobin is _______ (decreased/normal/increased) in thalassemia major
G6PD deficiency
oxidizing drugs, infections, and fava beans are triggers of acute hemolytic anemia in what deficiency?