Comprehensive Review: Agribusiness Finance, Operations & Business Law

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These question-and-answer flashcards cover the essential concepts, definitions, formulas, and case principles across agribusiness finance, financial analysis, capital budgeting, operations & supply-chain management, human-resource management, contract & commercial law, and modern retail operations—including omnichannel strategies and common store-management issues.

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100 Terms

1
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What are three key reasons managers rely on financial statements?

To make informed decisions, report to external parties (investors, banks, government), and ensure accurate, up-to-date financial information.

2
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Which two broad accounting areas use financial statements?

Management accounting (internal) and financial accounting (external).

3
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State the accounting equation shown on a balance sheet.

Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity.

4
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Give two examples of current assets.

Cash and accounts receivable (inventories are a third common example).

5
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What distinguishes long-term liabilities from current liabilities?

Long-term liabilities are debts payable in more than one year; current liabilities are due within one year.

6
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Which financial statement summarises revenues and expenses for a period?

Income Statement (Statement of Profit & Loss).

7
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List the basic steps used to compute gross profit on an Income Statement.

Net Sales – Cost of Goods Sold = Gross Profit.

8
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Name the three activity categories in a Statement of Cash Flows.

Operating, Investing, and Financing activities.

9
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Why is a good record-keeping system described as cost-effective?

Because its benefits in error prevention and decision support outweigh its implementation cost.

10
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What are the four main financial-statement analysis focuses?

Profitability, Liquidity, Solvency (long-term ability), and Efficiency.

11
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Which analysis expresses every item as a percentage of a base figure for easy comparison?

Common-size analysis.

12
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Define ROE and list its three drivers in the DuPont/ROE model.

Return on Equity; driven by Return on Sales, Asset Turnover, and Financial Leverage.

13
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Give one limitation of ratio analysis.

Different accounting methods between firms can distort comparisons.

14
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Why is cash termed “king” in agribusiness finance?

Because cash is critical for daily operations, asset purchases, and working-capital cycles.

15
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Name the three primary sources of business capital.

Owner investment (equity), loans (debt), and retained earnings.

16
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What percentage of current liabilities is often recommended as a cash reserve?

Roughly 20–25 % of current liabilities.

17
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Differentiate between short-term and long-term loans in agribusiness.

Short-term loans (≤1 year) cover temporary needs; long-term loans (> 5 years) finance land or buildings.

18
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Explain the principle of financial leverage.

Using debt can raise returns if investment earnings exceed borrowing cost, but it also increases risk.

19
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What is a pro forma statement?

A projected financial statement used for budgeting and financing decisions.

20
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List two external financing sources besides commercial banks.

Trade credit and insurance companies (others: finance companies, cooperatives).

21
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Define capital budgeting.

The process of evaluating long-term investments’ effects on profit, liquidity, and risk.

22
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Which capital-budgeting method ignores the time value of money yet measures how quickly cash is recovered?

Payback Period.

23
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What decision rule applies to Net Present Value (NPV)?

Accept an investment if NPV is positive (> 0).

24
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At what point do you accept a project using Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?

When IRR exceeds the firm’s required rate of return (hurdle rate).

25
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In operations management, what are the two major components?

Production Planning and Supply Chain Management.

26
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Give two unique operational challenges for agricultural products.

Seasonality of production and perishability of goods.

27
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State two key factors in plant-location decisions.

Proximity to raw materials and access to transportation (others: labour cost, tax incentives, market distance).

28
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What is the main objective of layout planning?

To maximise efficiency of space, labour, and workflow.

29
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Name the four common facility-layout types.

Process, Product, Hybrid, and Fixed-Position layouts.

30
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Which process-design factor weighs machine use versus human labour?

Capital intensity.

31
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What are two goals of job design?

Achieve production objectives and provide employee satisfaction and safety.

32
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Define Supply Chain Management (SCM).

Coordinating all activities from raw-material purchase to delivery of finished goods to customers.

33
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Why is inventory control critical in SCM?

Inventory can represent 35–50 % of current assets and incurs high carrying costs.

34
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Differentiate MRP and JIT production-control systems.

MRP is a push system driven by schedules; JIT is a pull system producing only when needed to cut inventory.

35
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What distribution strategy places inventory close to customers for faster delivery?

Forward placement (decentralised warehouses near markets).

36
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List three key HR management functions.

Recruitment & selection, performance appraisal, and compensation & benefits (others: training, promotion, termination).

37
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Why are job descriptions and specifications important?

They clarify responsibilities and qualifications, aiding accurate recruitment and evaluation.

38
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Identify two common employee-orientation goals.

Introduce the organisation and build working relationships before starting tasks.

39
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Give one purpose of performance appraisal.

To improve employee performance and guide promotion or training decisions.

40
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What is the definition of a contract under the Contracts Act 1950?

An agreement enforceable by law.

41
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State the six essential elements of a valid contract.

Offer, Acceptance, Intention to create legal relations, Consideration, Certainty, and Capacity.

42
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Explain privity of contract.

Only parties to a contract can sue or be sued on it, with limited exceptions.

43
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Distinguish between a condition and a warranty in contract terms.

A condition is fundamental; its breach allows contract termination. A warranty is minor; breach gives damages only.

44
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Name two factors that can make a contract voidable.

Coercion and undue influence (others: fraud, misrepresentation, mistake).

45
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What remedy orders a party to perform exactly as promised?

Specific Performance.

46
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In Wrench v Hyde, why was no contract formed?

A counter-offer by Hyde destroyed the original offer; it could not be revived.

47
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What principle did Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. establish?

An advertisement can constitute a binding unilateral offer accepted by performance.

48
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Under the Sale of Goods Act 1957, how are ‘goods’ defined?

Movable property other than money and actionable claims.

49
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Differentiate existing goods from future goods.

Existing goods already belong to the seller; future goods are yet to be manufactured or obtained.

50
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What is the basic rule of title transfer in sales (nemo dat)?

A seller cannot pass better title than he possesses.

51
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Give two implied conditions under a sale of goods.

Goods match description and are of merchantable (acceptable) quality (others: fit for purpose, right to sell).

52
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State one right of an unpaid seller.

A lien over the goods until paid (others: stoppage in transit, resale).

53
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What relationship does the law of agency govern?

The relationship where an agent acts on behalf of a principal, affecting the principal’s legal position.

54
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List two ways agency can be created without express words.

Implied appointment and agency by necessity (others: ratification, estoppel).

55
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Name two duties owed by an agent to the principal.

Follow instructions and avoid conflicts of interest (others: keep accounts, exercise care, no secret profits).

56
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How may an agency terminate by operation of law?

Death, insanity, or bankruptcy of either principal or agent (among others).

57
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What landmark case confirmed separate legal personality of companies?

Salomon v Salomon & Co Ltd.

58
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Define perpetual succession.

A company continues to exist regardless of changes in membership.

59
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Give two situations where courts may lift the corporate veil.

Fraud or avoidance of legal obligations (others: having fewer than two members).

60
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What is a floating charge?

A security interest over changing assets that crystallises into a fixed charge upon default or winding up.

61
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State one core fiduciary duty of directors.

To act bona fide in the best interests of the company.

62
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Under the Companies Act, what document sets out a company’s internal rules?

The Articles of Association (now often called Constitution).

63
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Contrast company liability with partnership liability.

Company members’ liability is limited; partners have unlimited personal liability for firm debts.

64
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What is the maximum typical number of partners allowed under the Partnership Act 1961?

Twenty partners (except certain professional firms).

65
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Give one right partners share under s.26 of the Partnership Act.

Right to take part in management (others: share profits, inspect books).

66
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Define hire purchase.

An agreement to hire goods with an option to own them after all instalments are paid.

67
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When may a hire-purchase owner repossess goods without court leave?

Before the hirer has paid 75 % of the total hire-purchase price.

68
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What modern retail concept provides a seamless experience across all sales channels?

Omnichannel retailing.

69
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Name two features of an effective omnichannel system.

Click-and-collect services and unified customer data across platforms (others: in-store returns for online purchases).

70
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Give one major challenge in implementing omnichannel strategies.

High cost of integrating IT systems and staff training.

71
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List three key components of store management.

Store layout, inventory management, and staff management (others: customer service, cleanliness, promotions).

72
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What is a ‘hot zone’ in retail layout planning?

An area with high customer traffic where best-selling items are displayed.

73
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Identify two common operational issues in retailing.

Stock-outs due to poor inventory control and high employee turnover (others: supply-chain delays, tech inefficiencies).

74
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What technology helps retailers track stock in real time?

A modern Point-of-Sale (POS) system with automated inventory tracking (or RFID).

75
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Why can excessive promotions hurt a retailer’s profitability?

They reduce margins and may train customers to wait for discounts, lowering overall revenue.

76
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List two suggested improvements for retail operational issues.

Regular staff training with clear SOPs and adoption of real-time inventory systems.

77
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Which HR activity immediately follows recruitment and selection?

Employee orientation/induction.

78
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What is the main objective of supply-chain ‘quick response’?

To reduce time to market and meet customer demand faster.

79
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Explain ‘forward placement’ in distribution strategy.

Storing inventory closer to customers to speed delivery at higher carrying cost.

80
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What does HACCP stand for, and why is it important?

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points; it ensures food safety and product quality.

81
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Name two key performance metrics in operations productivity.

Output per labour hour and cost per unit produced.

82
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What is the primary purpose of benchmarking in financial analysis?

Comparing current performance against past periods, budgets, or industry averages.

83
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Which financial-statement category evaluates ability to meet short-term obligations?

Liquidity ratios (e.g., current ratio, quick ratio).

84
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What does a debt-to-equity ratio measure?

The proportion of financing that comes from debt relative to owners’ equity (solvency).

85
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In capital budgeting, what is ‘discounting’?

Calculating today’s value of future cash flows using a discount rate.

86
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Why is job enrichment considered in job design?

To increase employee motivation by adding meaningful tasks and autonomy.

87
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What HR document lists skills and qualifications required for a job?

Job specification.

88
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State one advantage and one disadvantage of leasing equipment.

Advantage: conserves cash and allows easy upgrades. Disadvantage: often higher long-term cost and no ownership rights.

89
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What are the three main sections in an academic exam timetable often labelled?

Morning session, Afternoon session, and Evening session.

90
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Who are typical stakeholders interested in a firm’s financial statements?

Employees, customers, investors, suppliers, and the board of directors.

91
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Define ‘asset turnover’ in the DuPont/ROE model.

Revenue generated per ringgit of assets; a measure of efficiency.

92
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What is the effect of extraordinary items on ratio analysis?

They can distort results because they are non-recurring and not reflective of normal operations.

93
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Give an example of agency by estoppel.

A principal’s conduct leads a third party to reasonably believe an agent has authority, binding the principal.

94
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Why did the court decide Balfour v Balfour lacked intent to create legal relations?

Because domestic/social agreements are presumed not legally binding unless proven otherwise.

95
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What does ‘crystallisation’ mean regarding floating charges?

The moment a floating charge becomes a fixed charge on specific assets upon certain events.

96
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Name one protective right under the Consumer Protection Act 1999.

Implied guarantee that goods are of acceptable quality.

97
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What system links production scheduling with material purchasing to minimise inventory?

Material Requirements Planning (MRP).

98
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State two factors considered before a firm seeks additional funding.

Purpose and amount required; cost and source of funds (also repayment ability and impact on risk).

99
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How can leverage increase a firm’s return on equity?

By financing with debt, profits attributable to equity holders rise if earnings exceed interest costs.

100
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What is the primary goal of capacity planning?

To match production capability with expected demand while minimising cost and lost sales risk.