Cardiac and Pulmonary Physiology: ECG, Heart Valves, Lung Volumes, and Acid-Base Balance

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77 Terms

1
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What is the electrical conduction pathway of the heart?

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Right and Left Bundle Branches → Purkinje fibers

2
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What are the phases of the ventricular action potential?

Phase 0: Depolarization (Na⁺ influx), Phase 1: Initial repolarization (K⁺ out), Phase 2: Plateau (Ca²⁺ influx balances K⁺ out), Phase 3: Repolarization (K⁺ out), Phase 4: Resting potential (Na⁺/K⁺ pump activity)

3
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What are the phases of the cardiac cycle?

Atrial systole → Isovolumetric contraction → Ventricular ejection → Isovolumetric relaxation → Ventricular filling

4
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Which heart valves are open and closed during systole?

Systole: AV valves (mitral, tricuspid) closed; Semilunar valves (aortic, pulmonary) open

5
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Which heart valves are open and closed during diastole?

Diastole: AV valves open; Semilunar valves closed

6
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What causes the first heart sound (S1)?

Closure of AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) at the beginning of systole

7
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What causes the second heart sound (S2)?

Closure of semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the beginning of diastole

8
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What causes heart murmurs?

Turbulent blood flow, often due to valve stenosis or regurgitation

9
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What do the P, QRS, and T waves represent on ECG?

P wave: atrial depolarization; QRS complex: ventricular depolarization; T wave: ventricular repolarization

10
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What does the PR interval represent?

Time from onset of atrial depolarization to onset of ventricular depolarization (AV nodal delay)

11
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What does the QT interval represent?

Duration of ventricular depolarization and repolarization

12
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What is the standard ECG paper speed and calibration?

25 mm/sec; 1 mV = 10 mm

13
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What are the limb leads in ECG?

I, II, III, aVR, aVL, aVF

14
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Where are the precordial (chest) ECG leads placed?

V1-V6 are placed across the anterior chest in specific intercostal spaces (V1/V2 = 4th ICS, V4 = 5th ICS midclavicular)

15
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What are Type I pneumocytes and their function?

Type I cells cover 95% of alveolar surface and are involved in gas exchange

16
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What are Type II pneumocytes and their function?

Type II cells produce surfactant and can proliferate to replace damaged Type I cells

17
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What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?

Reduces surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse (especially during expiration)

18
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Which lung volumes make up vital capacity (VC)?

VC = Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

19
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Which lung volumes make up total lung capacity (TLC)?

TLC = VC + Residual Volume (RV)

20
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What is tidal volume (TV)?

The amount of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath (~500 mL)

21
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What is residual volume (RV)?

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal exhalation

22
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What distinguishes the conducting zone from the respiratory zone?

Conducting zone (trachea to terminal bronchioles): no gas exchange; Respiratory zone (respiratory bronchioles to alveoli): gas exchange occurs

23
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What is anatomical dead space?

Volume of air in the conducting zone that does not participate in gas exchange (~150 mL)

24
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What is alveolar dead space?

Alveoli that are ventilated but not perfused; contributes to physiologic dead space

25
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What are the three lung zones and their characteristics?

Zone 1: PA > Pa > Pv (least perfused), Zone 2: Pa > PA > Pv, Zone 3: Pa > Pv > PA (most perfused)

26
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What is the normal V/Q ratio and its significance?

Normal V/Q ≈ 0.8; balance of ventilation and perfusion necessary for optimal gas exchange

27
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How does V/Q ratio vary from apex to base of lung?

Apex: high V/Q (more ventilation than perfusion); Base: low V/Q (more perfusion than ventilation)

28
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What is a physiologic shunt?

Perfusion without ventilation; blood bypasses the alveoli (e.g., airway obstruction)

29
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What is alveolar dead space?

Ventilation without perfusion; air reaches alveoli but no gas exchange occurs (e.g., pulmonary embolism)

30
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What is a normal arterial blood pH range?

7.35-7.45

31
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What do PaCO₂ and HCO₃⁻ represent in ABG interpretation?

PaCO₂ = respiratory component; HCO₃⁻ = metabolic component

32
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What defines respiratory acidosis?

Low pH, high PaCO₂ (e.g., hypoventilation, COPD)

33
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What defines respiratory alkalosis?

High pH, low PaCO₂ (e.g., hyperventilation, anxiety)

34
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What defines metabolic acidosis?

Low pH, low HCO₃⁻ (e.g., DKA, diarrhea)

35
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What defines metabolic alkalosis?

High pH, high HCO₃⁻ (e.g., vomiting, diuretic use)

36
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Which acid-base disorder is seen in COPD?

Chronic respiratory acidosis (high PaCO₂, compensated with high HCO₃⁻)

37
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Which acid-base disorder is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Metabolic acidosis (low HCO₃⁻ and low pH)

38
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Which acid-base disturbance is caused by vomiting?

Metabolic alkalosis (loss of H⁺ and Cl⁻ from stomach)

39
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Which acid-base disturbance is caused by aspirin overdose?

Early: respiratory alkalosis; Late: mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

40
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What is the pacemaker of the heart and why?

The SA node, because it has the highest rate of spontaneous depolarization

41
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What is the function of the AV node?

Delays conduction to allow time for ventricular filling after atrial contraction

42
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What happens during the isovolumetric contraction phase?

Ventricles contract with all valves closed, causing a rapid rise in pressure

43
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What happens during the isovolumetric relaxation phase?

Ventricles relax with all valves closed, pressure falls without volume change

44
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What causes the third heart sound (S3)?

Rapid ventricular filling; may be normal in children/athletes or pathologic (heart failure)

45
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What causes the fourth heart sound (S4)?

Atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle; associated with LV hypertrophy

46
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Which murmur is heard in aortic stenosis?

Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard at right upper sternal border

47
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Which murmur is heard in mitral regurgitation?

Holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex, radiates to axilla

48
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What is the significance of the ST segment on ECG?

It represents the isoelectric period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization; elevation/depression indicates ischemia or infarct

49
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Which ECG leads view the anterior heart?

V1-V4 (especially V2-V4)

50
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Which ECG leads view the lateral heart?

Leads I, aVL, V5, V6

51
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What is the effect of hyperkalemia on the ECG?

Peaked T waves, widened QRS, flattened P waves

52
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What is the effect of hypokalemia on the ECG?

Flattened T waves, U waves, ST depression

53
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What are the three layers of the heart wall?

Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium (outermost)

54
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What stimulates surfactant production in the fetus?

Cortisol (glucocorticoids) stimulate Type II pneumocytes to produce surfactant

55
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At what gestational age does surfactant production become sufficient?

About 34-36 weeks of gestation

56
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What is compliance in pulmonary physiology?

The ease with which the lungs expand; defined as ΔV/ΔP

57
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How does emphysema affect lung compliance?

Increases compliance (loss of elastic recoil)

58
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How does pulmonary fibrosis affect compliance?

Decreases compliance (stiff lungs)

59
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What is functional residual capacity (FRC)?

The volume of air in lungs after normal exhalation; balance point of inward lung recoil and outward chest wall force

60
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What is the most accurate method to measure residual volume?

Helium dilution or body plethysmography

61
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What does Dalton's Law state?

Total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas

62
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What does Fick's Law describe?

Rate of gas transfer across a membrane is proportional to surface area and partial pressure gradient and inversely proportional to thickness

63
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What is ventilation-perfusion mismatch?

A mismatch between air reaching alveoli (ventilation) and blood flow (perfusion); leads to impaired gas exchange

64
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What is the A-a gradient and what does it signify?

Alveolar-arterial gradient; increased in V/Q mismatch, diffusion problems, or shunt

65
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What are common causes of hypoxemia with normal A-a gradient?

Hypoventilation and high altitude

66
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What are common causes of hypoxemia with increased A-a gradient?

V/Q mismatch, diffusion impairment, right-to-left shunt

67
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What happens to V/Q ratio during a pulmonary embolism?

Increases; ventilation is preserved but perfusion is blocked (dead space)

68
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What is the Haldane effect?

Oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces CO₂ from hemoglobin, increasing CO₂ removal

69
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What is the Bohr effect?

Increased CO₂ and H⁺ in tissues decreases hemoglobin's affinity for O₂, enhancing O₂ delivery

70
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What is the bicarbonate buffer system equation?

CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻

71
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What compensatory response occurs in metabolic acidosis?

Respiratory compensation via hyperventilation (↓PaCO₂)

72
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What compensatory response occurs in respiratory acidosis?

Renal compensation by increasing HCO₃⁻ reabsorption

73
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What acid-base abnormality is seen in salicylate poisoning?

Mixed: Early respiratory alkalosis, later metabolic acidosis

74
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How can you quickly distinguish respiratory vs metabolic acid-base disorders?

Check pH first (acidic or basic), then see if PaCO₂ or HCO₃⁻ is the primary change

75
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What is Winter's formula and its use?

Predicts expected PaCO₂ in metabolic acidosis: PaCO₂ = (1.5 × HCO₃⁻) + 8 ± 2

76
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What defines anion gap metabolic acidosis?

Anion gap > 12; indicates addition of unmeasured acids (MUDPILES)

77
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What are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

HARDASS: Hyperalimentation, Addison's, RTA, Diarrhea, Acetazolamide, Spironolactone, Saline