HCS 215 Chapter 9 Biology Flashcards and Study Terms

1) What type of glial cells plays a critical role in maintaining extracellular potassium levels?

A) Schwann cells

B) oligodendrocytes

C) microglia

D) ependymal cells

E) astrocytes

E

2) What type of glial cell is necessary for normal development of the blood-brain barrier?

A) astrocytes

B) oligodendrocytes

C) ependymal cells

D) microglia

E) Schwann cells

A

3) Alzheimer's disease is caused by the loss of ________ neurons in certain brain areas and replacement of the lost neurons with scar tissue called ________.

A) cholinergic : plaques

B) cholinergic : myelin

C) adrenergic : plaques

D) adrenergic : myelin

E) muscarinic : myelin

A

4) What type of glial cell is a phagocyte?

A) astrocyte

B) oligodendrocyte

C) ependymal cell

D) microglia

E) Schwann cell

D

5) Which of the following protects the soft tissues of the brain?

A) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

B) the meninges

C) the cranium

D) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the cranium

E) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the meninges, and the cranium

E

6) Which statement best describes why the brain requires an uninterrupted supply of blood?

A) The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose.

B) The CNS does not have access to fatty acids for energy, which increases their demand for glucose.

C) The CNS has a limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.

D) The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose and has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.

E) The CNS has limited glycogen to convert to glucose, it does not have access to fatty acids for energy, and it has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.

E

7) What symptom of stroke distinguishes it from other neurological disorders?

A) sudden onset

B) loss of vision

C) muscle weakness

D) paralysis

E) tingling sensations in the extremities

A

8) Tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells in the central nervous system create the blood-brain barrier, thereby restricting what type of movement of molecules into the brain?

A) active transport of

B) transcytosis of

C) facilitated diffusion of hydrophobic

D) diffusion of lipophilic

E) diffusion of hydrophilic

E

9) In order for ions to move across the capillary endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier, they must

A) move through the endothelial cell layer by transcytosis.

B) be lipophobic.

C) be hydrophilic.

D) be transported across endothelial cells.

E) move through pores between endothelial cells.

D

10) Which of the following substances requires mediated transport to cross the blood-brain barrier?

A) glucose

B) hydrogen ions

C) oxygen

D) carbon dioxide

E) ethanol

A

11) What type of glucose transporter is located in the endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier?

A) cotransporter with sodium

B) countertransporter with sodium

C) GLUT-1

D) GLUT-2

E) GLUT-4

C

12) Insulin is known to cross the blood-brain barrier and attach to receptors in the brain. Which statement best describes the function of insulin in the brain?

A) It assists in glucose metabolism.

B) It decreases hunger.

C) It increases hunger.

D) It causes stroke.

E) It signals the brain to release glucagon.

B

13) What is the function of gray matter in the CNS?

A) neural integration and synaptic communication

B) to speed up nerve transmission

C) to carry information in tracts from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS

D) to communicate between the different lobes of the brain

E) signals the brain centers to produce dopamine

A

14) What are the fibers that connect the cortical regions on one side of the brain with the corresponding cortical region on the other side of the brain?

A) commissural fibers

B) projection fibers

C) association fibers

D) spinothalamic tracts

E) arcuate fasciculi

A

15) Physicians administer drugs or do spinal taps in the lumbar region of the spine. Which statement best describes why the lumbar region of the spine is used for such procedures?

A) It is because of gravity; the CFS has more pressure in the lumbar region of the spine.

B) It is due to the anatomical feature known as the cauda equina (Latin "horse tail"), meaning the spinal cord spreads out into individual nerves and the physician is less likely to harm the spinal cord.

C) It is due to the anatomical feature of projection fibers that connect the spinal cord with the brain so the drugs will make it to the brain.

D) This is where the dorsal and ventral roots are located and drugs administered to the roots are more effective.

E) Patients are less sensitive in this area of the back.

B

16) Which of the following would consist of white matter?

A) dorsal columns of the spinal cord

B) basal nuclei

C) cerebral cortex

D) dorsal horn of the spinal cord

E) ventral horn of the spinal cord

A

17) Through physical examination, neurologists can easily determine which spinal nerve has been damaged and at what level in the spinal cord an injury has occurred due to mapping out the various sensory regions called

A) dermatomes.

B) association fibers.

C) projection fibers.

D) commissural fibers.

E) ganglia.

A

18) The face is innervated by what type of nerves?

A) thoracic

B) cervical

C) cranial

D) sacral

E) lumbar

C

19) Which spinal nerves originate in the neck region?

A) lumbar nerves

B) sacral nerves

C) cervical nerves

D) thoracic nerves

E) coccygeal nerve

C

20) Which nerves innervate the anterior thigh?

A) cranial nerves

B) cervical nerves

C) sacral nerves

D) thoracic nerves

E) lumbar nerves

E

21) Afferent and efferent axons travel together in spinal nerves, but they separate into different bundles when they leave and enter the spinal cord. The afferent axons enter the spinal cord via the ________ root and efferent axons leave the spinal cord via the ________ root.

A) dorsal : ventral

B) ventral : dorsal

C) canal : spindle

D) ascending : descending

E) descending : ascending

A

22) Which of the following is a descending tract?

A) anterior pyramidal tract

B) dorsal columns

C) anterior spinothalamic tract

D) spinotectal tract

E) lateral spinothalamic tract

A

23) An ascending or descending pathway that is located on the same side of the central nervous system integration center is called

A) longitudinal.

B) lateralized.

C) contralateral.

D) ipsilateral.

E) commissural.

D

24) Which area of the brain plays an important role in sleep-wake cycles, arousal of the cerebral cortex, and consciousness?

A) frontal lobes

B) cerebellum

C) diencephalon

D) reticular formation

E) temporal lobe

D

25) Which cranial nerve controls the muscles for chewing?

A) oculomotor

B) trochlear

C) trigeminal

D) abducens

E) glossopharyngeal

C

26) Which cranial nerve controls eye movements, papillary reflex, accommodation reflex, and proprioception?

A) oculomotor

B) trochlear

C) trigeminal

D) abducens

E) glossopharyngeal

A

27) Which cranial nerve controls the motor control of swallowing and salivary glands and taste?

A) oculomotor

B) trochlear

C) trigeminal

D) abducens

E) glossopharyngeal

E

28) Which cerebral lobe contains the visual cortex?

A) occipital

B) temporal

C) parietal

D) frontal

E) medial

A

29) Which cerebral lobe contains the auditory cortex?

A) occipital

B) temporal

C) parietal

D) frontal

E) medial

B

30) The ________ lobe contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates ________ movement.

A) occipital lobe : involuntary

B) temporal lobe : involuntary

C) parietal lobe : voluntary

D) frontal lobe : voluntary

E) medial lobe : voluntary

D

31) In the motor and sensory homunculi, each body part is shown next to the area of cerebral cortex devoted to it. Which statement best describes what these homunculi represent?

A) The relative size of the body part represents the relative size of the cortical area devoted to that body part.

B) The relative size of the body part distinguishes which part is primarily on the right side of the brain versus the left.

C) The relative size of the body parts corresponds to the ascending and descending tracts that control that body part.

D) The homunculi map out the dermatomes of the body.

E) The homunculi are open to interpretation by neurologists, based upon his or her area of specialty.

A

32) Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the right side of the cerebrum in most individuals?

A) creativity

B) artistic qualities

C) musical

D) spatial perception

E) logic

E

33) Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the left side of the cerebrum in most individuals?

A) expression of language

B) comprehension of language

C) analytical reasoning

D) spatial perception

E) logical reasoning

D

34) An epileptic patient has undergone a complete corpus callosotomy, a surgical procedure that results in the complete disconnection of the corpus callosum. Which statement best describes the behaviors you would observe in this type of patient?

A) Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient cannot name what the right side of the brain is seeing.

B) This area of the brain determines personality therefore the patient will undergo changes in personality, usually becoming more aggressive.

C) This area of the brain controls higher-order thinking therefore the patient will have no interest in solving problems.

D) Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient will be unable to speak; you must have both sides of the brain working in order to form words.

E) This area of the brain controls the ability to see things in three dimensions; it is likely this pati

A

35) What region of the diencephalon filters and refines sensory information, allowing us to direct our attention to specific external stimuli?

A) hypothalamus

B) thalamus

C) basal nuclei

D) limbic system

E) putamen

B

36) This area of the brain is often referred to as the "control center" because it plays an important role in regulating homeostasis. It is involved in hunger, thirst, thermoregulation, and many other important homeostatic measures.

A) hypothalamus

B) thalamus

C) limbic system

D) cerebral cortex

E) cerebellum

A

37) The ________ plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.

A) caudate nucleus

B) globus pallidus

C) putamen

D) suprachiasmatic nucleus

E) cingulate gyrus

D

38) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?

A) communication between the nervous and endocrine system

B) controls hunger and thirst

C) affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions

D) controls thermoregulation

E) contains the cardiovascular control centers

E

39) Where is the thermoregulatory center?

A) hypothalamus

B) medulla oblongata

C) pons

D) amygdala

E) hippocampus

A

40) Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion of fear?

A) hippocampus

B) fornix

C) amygdala

D) cingulate gyrus

E) thalamus

C

41) What area of the brain is often referred to as the "primitive brain" due to its association with very basic human drives such as aggression, fear, and the sense of smell?

A) hypothalamus

B) thalamus

C) limbic system

D) cerebral cortex

E) cerebellum

C

42) How is a reflex that requires communication with the brain classified?

A) visceral

B) spinal

C) cranial

D) somatic

E) innate

C

43) How is a reflex that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves classified?

A) visceral

B) spinal

C) cranial

D) somatic

E) innate

A

44) How is a reflex with which we are born classified?

A) visceral

B) spinal

C) cranial

D) somatic

E) innate

E

45) How is a reflex that requires only a single synapse between two neurons classified?

A) bineuronal

B) bisynaptic

C) polysynaptic

D) monosynaptic

E) polyneuronal

D

46) Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?

A) conditioned

B) cranial

C) visceral

D) polysynaptic

E) spinal

E

47) Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?

A) crossed-flexor

B) pupillary light

C) crossed-extensor

D) muscle spindle stretch

E) withdrawal

D

48) The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?

A) muscle spindle stretch receptor

B) nociceptor

C) photoreceptor

D) taste receptor

E) warm receptor

B

49) The crossed-extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?

A) muscle spindle stretch receptor

B) nociceptor

C) photoreceptor

D) taste receptor

E) warm receptor

B

50) In response to stepping on a nail, the crossed-extensor reflex causes

A) flexion of the leg on the side of receptor activation.

B) extension of the leg on the side of receptor activation.

C) extension of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.

D) flexion of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.

E) extension of the arm on the side of receptor activation.

C

51) The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following presents those steps in the correct order?

A) program, intent, feedback, execute

B) program, intent, execute, feedback

C) intent, program, execute, feedback

D) feedback, intent, program, execute

E) intent, feedback, program, execute

C

52) What two tracts control skeletal muscle activity?

A) pyramidal and rubrospinal tracts

B) tectospinal and spinothalamic

C) spinocerebellar and spinothalmic

D) fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus

E) reticular spinal and corticospinal

A

53) The lower motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle, and induce them to contract, originate from the

A) ventral horn of the spinal cord.

B) dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

C) motor cortex.

D) basal nuclei.

E) pyramidal tract.

A

54) What neural pathway provides for the control of fine, discrete movements of the extremities?

A) rubrospinal tract

B) pyramidal tract

C) tectospinal tract

D) spinothalamic tract

E) reticularspinal tract

B

55) The primary function of the ventromedial pathways is on the muscles of the

A) trunk, neck, and proximal portions of the limb.

B) ears, eyes, and mouth.

C) fingers, wrists, and toes.

D) knee, ankle, and foot.

E) stomach, back, and buttocks.

A

56) What is the function of the tectospinal tract?

A) controls the head, neck, and lumbar muscles in order to maintain posture

B) transmits impulses associated with pain

C) transmits impulses associated with hearing

D) controls the head so that the eyes can follow and object

E) controls muscle tone

D

57) Threading a needle or a fishing hook would involve which of the following tracts?

A) pyramidal

B) reticulospinal

C) tectospinal

D) vestibulospinal

E) spinocerebellar

A

58) Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in coordinated movement?

A) cortex

B) cerebellum

C) brainstem nuclei

D) thalamus

E) pineal gland

B

59) Damage to the cerebellum will lead to which of the following symptoms?

A) a complete inability to move (lack of execution)

B) an inability to accurately plan a movement

C) the generation of slow, fine movements only

D) the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements

E) the generation of movement of large muscle groups only

D

60) A characteristic sign of cerebellar damage which involves a violent shaking motion that becomes worse as the limb gets closer to its target is called a(n) ________ tremor.

A) intention

B) rest

C) action

D) postural

E) kinetic

A

61) What anatomical feature of the brain has a similar function to that of the cerebellum?

A) basal nuclei

B) amygdala

C) choroid plexus

D) corpus callosum

E) cingulate gyrus

A

62) Huntington's disease is one of the few dominant genetic disorders that causes exaggerated involuntary jerking motions and progressive dementia. What area of the brain is primarily responsible for these symptoms?

A) basal nuclei

B) amygdala

C) choroid plexus

D) corpus callosum

E) cingulate gyrus

A

63) Parkinson's disease appears to target ________ cells within the ________.

A) cholinergic : substantia nigra

B) adrenergic : substantia nigra

C) dopaminergic : substantia nigra

D) adrenergic : red nuclei

E) cholinergic : red nuclei

C

64) What area of the brain controls language comprehension?

A) Broca's area

B) Wernicke's area

C) amygdala

D) limbic system

E) hypothalamus

B

65) You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask her to state her name and house address. She appears to understand your question, but when she tries to answer, she stutters and slurs her words, which are not grammatically correct. What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?

A) Broca's

B) Wernicke's

C) isolation

D) anomic

E) global

A

66) You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask him to state his name and house address. He has no response. You write down your question and have him read it. His reply is "yesterday morrow soon." What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?

A) Broca's

B) Wernicke's

C) isolation

D) anomic

E) global

B

67) If a bilingual person has a stroke in the language centers of the brain, which statement best describes the likely outcome of recovering one of the languages?

A) The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest deficit.

B) If both languages were learned at about the same time, then the two languages will be equally affected.

C) The person is most likely to speak both languages within the same sentence.

D) The most recently learned language will not be affected.

E) The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest unless both languages were learned at about the same time in which case both languages will be equally affected.

E

68) Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a function of sleep?

A) to conserve energy

B) mental practicing while dreaming

C) to clear short-term memory

D) to enhance immune function

E) to facilitate long-term memory

C

69) Your roommate not only talks in her sleep but also sleepwalks. Which statement best describe what sleep phase she is in?

A) slow-wave sleep (SWS) or non-REM sleep

B) REM sleep

C) stage 1 high-frequency sleep

D) stage 4 high-frequency sleep

E) delta phase sleep

A

70) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of slow-wave sleep?

A) decreased muscle tone

B) elaborate and intense dreams

C) snoring

D) decreased brain activity

E) increased parasympathetic activity

B

71) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?

A) loss of postural muscle tone

B) illogical and bizarre thoughts

C) increased parasympathetic activity

D) increased brain activity

E) decreased limbic system activity

C

72) During an initial interview, a patient tells you that he is having intense bizarre nightmares but awakens spontaneously. What phase of sleep would you tell the physician the patient has described to you?

A) slow-wave sleep (SWS) or non-REM sleep

B) REM sleep

C) stage 1 high-frequency sleep

D) stage 4 high-frequency sleep

E) delta phase sleep

B

73) A new mother is visiting the pediatrician because her baby is sleeping up to 17 hours a day. She jokes with the doctor that her husband, who is quite older than she, sleeps only 5 hours a day and seems fully rested. Which of the following would be the most likely response from the physician?

A) "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. By the way, it is also normal for older adults to need less sleep as they age."

B) "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. However, you probably need to send your husband to a doctor since a person needs to sleep at least 8 hours a day."

C) "The normal sleep cycle is 8 hours. We need to hospitalize your baby for observation."

D) "Your baby is sleeping too much, but since your husband is up, have him play with the baby."

E) "I will refer you to a sleep center as both your baby and husband need to be evaluated for s

A

74) When your mind is "racing" at night and you cannot fall asleep what, region of the brain is keeping you awake?

A) limbic system

B) pons

C) forebrain

D) reticular formation

E) cerebellum

D

75) Which statement best describes why nicotine should be avoided before going to bed?

A) Nicotine mimics acetylcholine, which is associated with the ascending reticular activating system.

B) Nicotine should not be avoided before bed; it will help relax you before going to sleep.

C) It binds to receptors in the corpus callosum, which stimulates both sides of the brain.

D) It binds to receptors in the cerebral cortex, which is involved in wake/sleep cycles.

E) Nicotine is a depressant and, therefore, negative feedback speeds up your heart and respiratory systems, which keep you from relaxing.

A

76) Which of the following is known to cause drowsiness?

A) antihistamines

B) birth control pills

C) aspirin

D) vitamin D

E) vitamin B12

A

77) When you're awake and alert, an EEG shows a pattern of high-frequency, low-amplitude oscillations known as ________. When you're awake but resting, the EEG shifts to a new pattern of lower-frequency, higher-amplitude waves known as ________.

A) beta waves : alpha waves

B) alpha waves : beta waves

C) sigmoid waves : electromagnetic waves

D) delta waves : theta waves

E) theta waves : delta waves

A

78) During rapid eye movement sleep, there is a(n) ________ in frequency of the electroencephalogram and a(n) ________ in arousal threshold.

A) decrease : increase

B) decrease : decrease

C) increase : decrease

D) increase : increase

E) stabilization : decrease

D

79) Rapid eye movement (REM) is called paradoxical sleep because

A) electroencephalogram activity reverts toward that observed in an awake, alert person.

B) electroencephalogram activity can change quite extensively during REM sleep.

C) electroencephalogram activity is quite different from slow-wave sleep.

D) people are less likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is lowest.

E) people are more likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is highest.

E

80) If you tend to remember your dreams, what stage of sleep are you in and what time of the night are the dreams likely occurring?

A) REM sleep and late into the sleep cycle, or prior to waking in the morning

B) REM sleep and early in the sleep cycle, or just as you make your way into REM sleep

C) REM sleep during the alternating patterns of REM

D) slow-wave sleep during stage 1, or just as you fall asleep

E) slow-wave sleep during stage 4, or in deep sleep just before you go into REM sleep

A

81) What emotion is the strongest motivation predictor?

A) depression

B) anger

C) fear

D) pleasure

E) aggression

D

82) The euphoria that is perceived when one ingests drugs such as opioids or amphetamines results from the activation of the ________ system.

A) cholinergic

B) dopaminergic

C) adrenergic

D) nitridergic

E) sympathetic

B

83) What emotion drives addiction?

A) depression

B) anger

C) fear

D) pleasure

E) aggression

D

84) In studying for this exam you acquired new knowledge and hopefully retained it. If you used a repetitive approach such as studying from note cards, this type of learning is referred to as ________. If you studied using, for example, the same information but linked to a case study, this type of learning is referred to as ________.

A) nonassociative : associative

B) associative : nonassociative

C) procedural : nonprocedural

D) nonprocedural : procedural

E) declarative : procedural

A

85) You go to the library to study for an exam only to find that parts of the library are being remodeled, creating many distracting noises. However, you decide to stay and complete your studies at the library because you have recently learned about ________, or a decrease in response to a repeated stimulus, such as the noises coming from the remodeling process.

A) habituation

B) plasticity

C) consolidation

D) declaration

E) sensitization

A

86) The transitioning of a memory from short term to long term is called

A) remembering.

B) declaration.

C) plasticity.

D) consolidation.

E) memorizing.

D

87) The ability of the nervous system to alter its anatomy and function in response to changes in its activity pattern is called

A) remembering.

B) declaration.

C) plasticity.

D) consolidation.

E) memorizing.

C

88) In long-term potentiation, the enhanced possibility that an activated postsynaptic membrane will generate an action potential is associated with a(n)

A) decrease in its threshold.

B) increase in its threshold.

C) increased number of EPSPs.

D) increased strength of the EPSPs.

E) reduction in the number of IPSPs.

D

89) The increased influx of calcium at a postsynaptic terminal with glutamate receptors

A) causes a greater release of neurotransmitter from the postsynaptic cell.

B) activates the NMDA receptor to increase calcium influx.

C) activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the AMPA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate.

D) activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the NMDA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate.

E) activates the AMPA receptor to increase sodium influx.

C

90) In addition to an increase in sensitivity to glutamate, the binding of large amounts of glutamate to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane also

A) directly causes more NMDA channels to open.

B) stimulates the release of a paracrine messenger that further increases glutamate release.

C) affects other synapses that are close to the first.

D) stimulates presynaptic autoreceptors and enhances its release.

E) can overwhelm the synapse.

B

91) A stroke occurring in the basal nuclei could produce which of the following symptoms?

A) loss of language comprehension

B) muscle rigidity

C) blindness or blurred vision

D) deafness

E) altered sleep-wake patterns

B

92) Which of the following is a phagocytic cell that protects the central nervous system from pathogens?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

A

93) Which of the following forms myelin in the central nervous system?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

E

94) Which of the following is the only glial cell located in the peripheral nervous system?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

B

95) Which of the following provides support for development of the blood-brain barrier?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

C

96) Which of the following degrades certain neurotransmitters?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

C

97) Which of the following enhances the conduction velocity of neurons in the central nervous system?

A) microglia

B) Schwann cell

C) astrocyte

D) ependymal cell

E) oligodendrocyte

E

98) The perception of touch sensations begins in which area of the brain?

A) basal nuclei

B) cerebellum

C) primary somatosensory cortex

D) limbic system

E) primary motor cortex

C

99) The perception of vision begins in which area of the brain?

A) primary visual cortex

B) basal nuclei

C) Broca's area

D) cerebellum

E) primary auditory cortex

A

100) Which area of the brain relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex?

A) basal nuclei

B) hypothalamus

C) corpus callosum

D) cerebellum

E) thalamus

E