West Coast EMT Block 3 (200 ???'s)

A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

A: a serious infection

B: a brain tumor

C: epilepsy

D: intercranial bleeding

C: epilepsy

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

A: not able to swallow without choking

B: experiencing a right hemispheric stroke

C: unable to produce or understand speech

D: usually conscious but has slurred speech

C: unable to produce or understand speech

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:

A: has a GCS score that is less than 8

B: has had a prior heart attack

C: is older than 60 years of age

D: has bleeding within the brain

D: has bleeding within the brain

A patient with an altered mental status is:

A: typically alert but is confused as to preceding events

B: usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus

C: completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli

D: not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

D: not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:

A: arm drift, memory, and grip strength

B: speech, pupil reaction, and memory

C: facial droop, speech, and pupil size

D: arm drift, speech, and facial droop

D: arm drigt, speech, and facial droop

Febrile seizures:

A: are usually benign but should be evaluated

B: are also referred to as absence seizures

C: often result in permanent brain damage

D: occur when a child's fever rises slowly

A: are usually benign but should be evaluated

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

A: pancreas

B: kidneys

C: brain

D: liver

D: liver

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A: brain stem

B: cerebral cortex

C: cerebellum

D: cerebrum

C: cerebellum

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

A: generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes

B: an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura

C: prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

D: profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity

C: prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

A: brain stem

B: cerebellum

C: cerebral cortex

D: cerebrum

A: brain stem

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

A: hypertension

B: diabetes mellitus

C: severe stress

D: heavy exertion

A: hypertension

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

A: foramen magnum

B: cauda equina

C: foramen lamina

D: vertebral foramen

A: foramen magnum

The three major parts of the brain are the:

A: cerebellum, medulla, and occiput

B: cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

C: brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord

D: midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord

B: cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:

A: ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down

B: ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment

C: observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes

D: expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side

B: ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

A: an acute stroke

B: a seizure

C: respiratory distress

D: a febrile convulsion

B: a seizure

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm:

A: Confusion and weakness

B: Unilateral hemiparesis

C: Sudden, severe headache

D: Nasal discharge of blood

C: Sudden, severe headache

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain:

A: Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe

B: Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe

C: Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

D: Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

D: Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache:

A: Neck stiffness or pain

B: Sinus congestion

C: Slow onset of symptoms

D: History of migraines

A: Neck stiffness or pain

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure:

A: No change in vision, smell, or taste

B: Generalized twitching of all muscles

C: Absence of breathing

D: Normal level of consciousness

D: Normal level of consciousness

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke:

A: Blockage of a cerebral artery

B: Narrowing of a carotid artery

C: Rupture of a cerebral artery

D: Acute atherosclerotic disease

A: Blockage of a cerebral artery

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

A: kidney stones

B: aortic aneurysm

C: strangulated hernia

D: acute pancreatitis

B: aortic aneurysm

A strangulated hernia is one that:

A: can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs

B: spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention

C: loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues

D: is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours

C: loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

A: can be reversed with prompt treatment

B: causes dehydration from excessive urination

C: is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

D: occurs from conditions such as dehydration

C: is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

A: cholecystitis

B: ileus

C: appendicitis

D: an ulcer

D: an ulcer

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:

A: have a history of esophagitis

B: have uncontrolled diabetes

C: have weak immune systems

D: consume a lot of alcohol

D: consume a lot of alcohol

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

A: lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position

B: lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen

C: sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent

D: sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles

B: lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

A: radiating pain

B: remote pain

C: referred pain

D: visceral pain

C: referred pain

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:

A: cholecystitis

B: appendicitis

C: pancreatitis

D: gastroenteritis

B: appendicitis

Solid abdominal organs include the:

A: gallbladder and large intestine

B: urinary bladder, colon, and ureters

C: stomach and small intestine

D: spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

D: spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A: retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium

B: removing sodium and water from the body

C: eliminating toxic waste products from the body

D: accommodating a large amount of blood volume

B: removing sodium and water from the body

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

A: internal bleeding

B: peritonitis

C: severe pain

D: high fever

B: peritonitis

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

A: retroperitoneal space

B: lungs and chest cavity

C: surface of the abdominal organs

D: walls of the abdominal cavity

D: walls of the abdominal cavity

The principal symptom in both infections and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:

A: diarrhea

B: vomiting

C: dysuria

D: high fever

A: diarrhea

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men:

A: Cystitis

B: Cholecystitis

C: Pancreatitis

D: Hepatitis

A: Cystitis

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD):

A: The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood

B: Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants

C: Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

D: Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

C: Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies:

A: Spleen

B: Kidneys

C: Liver

D: Pancreas

A: Spleen

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space:

A: Pancreas

B: Liver

C: Gallbladder

D: Spleen

A: Pancreas

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured:

A: Liver

B: Appendix

C: Gallbladder

D: Stomach

A: Liver

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct:

A: The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated

B: The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized

C: The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver

D: An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs

B: The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this:

A: Heart failure

B: Hypertension

C: Seizures

D: Diabetes

A: Heart failure

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

A: has overdosed on her insulin

B: has a low blood glucose level

C: is significantly hyperglycemic

D: has a urinary tract infection

C: is significantly hyperglycemic

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A: warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations

B: cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations

C: warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations

D: cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations

B: cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A: abnormally high blood glucose level

B: disorder of glucose metabolism

C: lack of insulin production in the pancreas

D: mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys

B: disorder of glucose metabolism

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

A: the pancreas produces excess insulin

B: the cells rapidly metabolize glucose

C: insulin is not available in the body

D: blood glucose levels rapidly fall

C: insulin is not available in the body

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:

A: polyphagia

B: dysphasia

C: dyspepsia

D: polydipsia

A: polyphagia

Hemoglobin is:

A: essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs

B: a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection

C: the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body

D: found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

D: found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:

A: has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL

B: has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex

C: has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

D: is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes

C: has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

A: various cancers

B: hemorrhagic stroke

C: pulmonary embolism

D: acute arterial rupture

C: pulmonary embolism

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A: supplemental insulin

B: diet and exercise

C: glyburide (Micronase)

D: tolbutamide (Orinase)

A: supplemental insulin

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

A: low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration

B: excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys

C: they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration

D: high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage

B: excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A: requesting permission from medical control

B: assessing the patient's mental status

C: checking the medication's expiration date

D: ensuring the absence of a gag reflex

D: ensuring the absence of a gag reflex

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

A: eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion

B: misses one or two prescribed insulin injections

C: markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose

D: takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin

D: takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin

The normal blood glucose level is between:

A: 80 and 120 mg/dL

B: 160 and 200 mg/dL

C: 60 and 80 mg/dL

D: 130 and 150 mg/dL

A: 80 and 120 mg/dL

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose:

A: a semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex

B: a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

C: an unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin

D: a conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

B: a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

Type 1 diabetes:

A: is typically treated with medications such as metformin

B: is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

C: typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age

D: is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL

B: is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

A: presence of a medical identification tag

B: rate and depth of breathing

C: patient's mental status

D: rate of the patient's pulse

B: rate and depth of breathing

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:

A: approximately how much water the patient drank that day

B: if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

C: the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin

D: if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions

B: if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing:

A: Blindness

B: Alcoholism

C: Hepatitis B

D: Depression

A: Blindness

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes:

A: Weight gain and edema

B: Low blood glucose level

C: Total lack of appetite

D: Weight loss and polyuria

D: Weight loss and polyuria

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct:

A: Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly

B: Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodging in a blood vessel

C: In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen

D: The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin

C: In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:

A: assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen

B: place her supine with her legs elevated

C: locate the area where the fire ants bit her

D: perform a rapid secondary assessment

A: assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:

A: a pustule

B: urticaria

C: purpura

D: a wheal

D: a wheal

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

A: histamines and leukotrienes

B: the bee venom itself

C: adrenaline and histamines

D: leukocytes and epinephrine

A: histamines and leukotrienes

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A: drying of the eyes

B: flushing of the skin

C: abdominal cramps

D: persistent dry cough

A: drying of the eyes

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

A: wheezing and hypotension are present

B: the patient is anxious and tachycardic

C: the reaction produces severe urticaria

D: a paramedic is present at the scene

A: wheezing and hypotension are present

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

A: record the time and dose given

B: reassess the patient's vital signs

C: notify medical control of your action

D: properly dispose of the syringe

D: properly dispose of the syringe

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _______ following administration:

A: 1 hour

B: 30 seconds

C: 1 minute

D: 30 minutes

C: 1 minute

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):

A: leukotriene

B: antibody

C: allergen

D: histamine

C: allergen

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

A: irrigated with copious amounts of water

B: left in place and covered

C: scraped away from the skin

D: squeezed with tweezers and removed

C: scraped away from the skin

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

A: urticaria and angioedema

B: watery eyes and localized itching

C: expiratory stridor and tachycardia

D: hypertension and swollen hands

A: urticaria and angioedema

Urticaria is the medical term for:

A: burning

B: hives

C: swelling

D: a wheal

B: hives

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

A: 15 seconds

B: 8 seconds

C: 3 seconds

D: 10 seconds

C: 3 seconds

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:

A: medial part of the buttocks

B: medial portion of the thigh

C: lateral portion of the thigh

D: lateral portion of the arm

C: lateral portion of the thigh

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction:

A: An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

B: Destruction of the immune system by an external substance

C: A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance

D: A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

A: An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately:

A: Upper airway swelling

B: Diffuse urticaria

C: Severe hypotension

D: Systemic vasodilation

A: Upper airway swelling

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction:

A: A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen

B: A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

C: A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee

D: A 40-year-old male who ingested penicillin

D: A 40-year-old male who ingested penicillin

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway:

A: Wheezing

B: Rales

C: Stridor

D: Rhonchi

C: Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct:

A: Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis

B: Fire and bites typically occur on the face

C: Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly

D: Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin

C: Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction:

A: The patient's general physical appearance

B: The patient's family history

C: The time of year in which the exposure occurred

D: The environment in which the patient is found

D: The environment in which the patient is found

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

A: enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs

B: rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues

C: a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli

D: narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

D: narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

A hypnotic drug is one that:

A: increases the senses

B: prevents amnesia

C: increases the pulse

D: induces sleep

D: induces sleep

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

A: acetaminophen

B: ibuprofen

C: cocaine

D: aspirin

D: aspirin

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

A: addiction

B: withdrawal

C: dependence

D: tolerance

D: tolerance

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

A: iron

B: methanol

C: ethanol

D: aspirin

D: aspirin

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to:

A: document the intervention

B: be alert for vomiting

C: monitor the patient's blood pressure

D: call medical control

B: be alert for vomiting

Airborne substances should be diluted with:

A: activated charcoal

B: syrup of ipecac

C: an alkaline antidote

D: oxygen

D: oxygen

An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

A: administer the appropriate antidote

B: contact poison control immediately

C: administer 25 g of activated charcoal

D: recognize that a poisoning occurred

D: recognize that a poisoning occurred

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A: Fructose

B: InstaChar

C: LiquiChar

D: Actidose

A: Fructose

Heroin is an example of a(n):

A: cholinergic

B: opioid

C: sympathomimetic

D: hypnotic

B: opioid

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

A: crack cocaine

B: ecstasy

C: amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine)

D: oxycodone (Percocet)

D: oxycodone (Percocet)

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

A: keep the patient supine and elevate his legs

B: encourage the patient to drink milk or water

C: try to find the container the substance was in

D: administer naloxone via the intranasal route

C: try to find the container the substance was in

Most poisonings occur via the ______ route:

A: inhalation

B: ingestion

C: injection

D: absorption

B: ingestion

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

A: hypothermia

B: hypotension

C: tachycardia

D: slurred speech

C: tachycardia

Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as:

A: willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness

B: unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol

C: misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

D: knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs

C: misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:

A: headache

B: black stools

C: abdominal pain

D: ringing in the ears

B: black stools

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

A: is aware of the patient's age and gender

B: knows why the patient overdosed on the drug

C: knows the location of the closest hospital

D: is aware of the substance that is involved

D: is aware of the substance that is involved

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children:

A: Alkaline poison

B: Inhaled poison

C: Plant poisoning

D: Injected poison

A: Alkaline poison

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance:

A: Why was the substance ingested:

B: How long ago was the substance taken

C: How much of the substance was taken

D: What type of substance was taken

A: Why was the substance ingested:

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct:

A: Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours

B: Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis

C: The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning

D: The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning

C: The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

A: decontaminate the patient's skin

B: obtain and maintain a patent airway

C: avoid contaminating yourself

D: move the patient to a safe area

C: avoid contaminating yourself