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During a small bowel resection, the surgical technologist should anticipate that the surgeon will clamp and ligate the mesentery of the resected segment before dividing the bowel.
This step is necessary because the mesentery:
Contains the vascular and lymphatic supply to the intestinal segment
A patient is undergoing open heart surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass. The team induces systemic hypothermia prior to aortic cross-clamping.
What is the primary physiologic purpose of this intervention?
To reduce oxygen use and protect organs when blood flow is limited
During balloon angioplasty, the surgical technologist prepares the inflation syringe.
Which solution is used to inflate the balloon catheter?
Diluted contrast medium
Which hernia passes through the deep (internal) inguinal ring and travels through the inguinal canal with the spermatic cord?
indirect inguinal
Urokinase and streptokinase are most commonly used to:
Dissolve blood clots
Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?
Fundus
Fertilization normally occurs in the:
Fallopian tubes
Which of the flowing vessels empties into the right atrium?
Superior vena cava
Which portion of the small intestine joins the large intestine?
Ileum
Which of the following arises from the left ventricle of the heart?
Ascending aorta
The artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the:
Subclavian
The medial malleolus is part of which bone?
Tibia
What is the term for the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with chromosome cells?
Meiosis
What is the most abundant ion in the body?
Calcium
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
glomerulus.
Which of the following arteries does not arise directly from the aorta?
Vertebral
The anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels, and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis when repairing a direct hernia is called:
Hesselbach's
Which division of the nervous system controls cardiac muscles?
Autonomic
The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm is the:
Biceps Brachii
Through which of the following do the common bile and pancreatic ducts empty?
Ampulla of Vater
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
Store bile
Which portion of the small intestine is visualized during an ERCP?
Duodenum
Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
Pharynx
The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is:
cornea
The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the:
cochlea
The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:
Ethmoid
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics is:
estrogen.
The primary stabilizing ligament of the knee which is attached to the posterior later is the:
anterior cruciate
Which organ produces bile?
liver
The total number of vertebrae in the adult is:
26
Which of the following nerves innervate the breast?
Anterior thorax
The initial result of the fertilization of gametes is a/an:
zygote
The pectoral girdle is formed by the:
clavicle and scapula.
The cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and the pharynx is the:
vagus.
The acromion process is part of which bone?
scapula.
Another name for spongy bone is:
cancellous bone.
Which of the following is a seminal tract accessory gland that surrounds the urethra?
prostate.
The colon ends at the:
anal canal.
Which salivary gland is drained by Stensen’s duct?
parotid
The inferior portion of the brain stem is the:
medulla
The second cervical vertebra is called the:
axis.
The colon begins at the:
cecum.
A solid granular mass that develops on the ovary after the release of an ovum is the:
corpus luteum.
Which quadrant is the appendix located?
right lower
Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are:
plasma proteins.
The peripheral nervous system contains:
cranial and spinal nerves
The olecranon process is part of which bone?
ulna
Referred to as the father of modern anatomy:
Vesalius
The diencephalon is composed of the:
thalamus and hypothalamus
When the right ventricle contracts, the blood is carried to the:
lungs
Which heart chamber has the thickest myocardial layers?
Left ventricle
The common iliac arteries that bifurcate at the level of the 4th lumbar vertebra are called the:
external and internal
The outermost layer of blood vessels is the tunica:
adventitia.
The clear, gel-like fluid that maintains the eye’s spherical shape is the:
vitreous humor.
The glands located along the edges of the eyelids that make oil are the:
Meibomian
Which part of the temporal bone articulates with the mandible to form the temporomandibular joint?
glenoid fossa
Which teeth are in the center front of the mouth?
incisors
Which of the following facial bones are the largest?
Mandible
Which of the following physiological factors is measured by the Apgar score to evaluate an infant immediately after birth?
Skin color
The rounded ends of the distal femus are called:
condyles
The distal clavicle articulates with the:
scapular acromion process
The fibrocartilaginous ring of tissue surrounding the glenoid fossa is the:
labrum
Which bone articulates with the distal tibia?
Talus
The joint between the frontal and parietal bones of the cranium is called a/an":
synarthrosis
The _____ forms the lateral walls and floor of the bony orbit, which houses the eyeball.
Zygoma
The paired ____ sinuses are the largest sinuses below the ocular orbits.
maxillary
Which normal flora organism may be responsible for a surgical site infection if the intestinal tract is perforated?
Escherichia coli
What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
artificial active
What is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
Flagella
The passage of fluid and dissolved material into the thin membrane of a cell wall is":
osmosis.
The invasion of pathogens within the tissues of a host is called:
infection.
Viruses reproduce by:
host cell metabolism
A CST is called in for an I&D of a seroma. What are the correct steps for preventing infection?
Drain wound and leave open
The ophthalmologist tells the CST to place 3 drops of atropine sulfate OU. What does this mean?
Both eyes dilated
Which of the following terms refers to the absence of the external ear?
Microtia
Hemostatis means to:
Arrest blood flow
The suffix -trophy means:
nourishment or development
What does the term hepat/o mean?
liver
What does the prefix inter- mean?
between.
What does the prefix hypo- mean?
Deficient, under
Which of the following terms means “abnormal sensation”?
Dysesthesia
Which of the following combining forms means thirst?
Dips/o
Process of removing a specific component from blood and returning to the body:
-apheresis
When a surgery procedure is performed to treat the hardening of a tissue structure, the suffix that describes the condition is:
-sclerosis
What medical term refers to the process of maturation of the primary oocyte into a mature ovum?
Oogenesis
The combining for parier/o:
wall of the body
The suffix -genic:
producing.
Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
Safety belt is placed below the knees
The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:
increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
Which of the following positions would be used for a LAVH?
lithotomy
In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?
Trendelenburg
Chest rolls are placed for prone positioning to":
facilitate respiration
Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups?
peroneal
What could result from crossing the patient’s arms across their chest in the supine position?
Interference with respiration
What is the surgical position used for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
reverse trendelenberg
What position is used for craniotomy?
supine
The venous sinus at the junction of the sclera and cornea is the:
canal of Schlemm
The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the:
pulmonary.
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?
liver
The prostate gland secretes:
alkaline fluid