3

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/99

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 7:23 PM on 6/26/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

100 Terms

1
New cards
A patient >40 years old is exposed to Hepatitis A and has never been vaccinated. What post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended?
Immune globulin 0.1 mL/kg
2
New cards
A patient with chronic liver disease is exposed to Hepatitis A. What prophylaxis is preferred?
Immune globulin
3
New cards
An HBV-positive mother delivers a baby weighing 1.9 kg. What should the infant receive?
HBV vaccine + HBIG
4
New cards
A premature infant weighing <2 kg is born to an HBV-negative mother. When should HBV vaccination occur?
At hospital discharge or age 1 month
5
New cards
A cirrhotic patient has undetectable HBV DNA after prolonged tenofovir therapy. Should treatment be discontinued?
No, continue indefinitely
6
New cards
Which HBV medication should be taken on an empty stomach?
Entecavir
7
New cards
Which HBV medication should be taken with food?
Tenofovir alafenamide
8
New cards
What is the goal of HCV treatment?
Sustained virologic response (SVR)
9
New cards
How is SVR defined?
Undetectable HCV RNA 12 weeks after completion of therapy
10
New cards
What type of virus causes HCV?
Positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus
11
New cards
What percentage of HCV infections progress to chronic infection?
Approximately 80%
12
New cards
How many HCV genotypes exist?
7 genotypes
13
New cards
What is the most common HCV genotype in the United States?
Genotype 1a
14
New cards
True or False: HCV has a proofreading polymerase.
False
15
New cards
True or False: Most patients with HCV are asymptomatic.
True
16
New cards
What is the initial screening test for HCV?
HCV antibody
17
New cards
If HCV antibody is positive, what confirmatory test should be performed?
HCV RNA
18
New cards
A patient has detectable HCV RNA but negative HCV antibodies. What does this suggest?
Acute HCV infection
19
New cards
A patient has positive HCV antibody and detectable HCV RNA. What does this indicate?
Current HCV infection
20
New cards
Which HCV medication is teratogenic?
Ribavirin
21
New cards
How long must contraception be used after ribavirin discontinuation?
6 months
22
New cards

True or False: Ribavirin is effective as monotherapy.

False

23
New cards
Which HCV regimens are safe in decompensated cirrhosis?
Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir and Ledipasvir/Sofosbuvir
24
New cards
Why are many HCV regimens contraindicated in Child-Pugh B/C cirrhosis?
They contain protease inhibitors
25
New cards
Which HCV drug suffix indicates a protease inhibitor?
-previr
26
New cards
Which HCV regimen requires NS5A resistance testing before use?
Elbasvir/Grazoprevir
27
New cards
Which HCV regimen is NOT pan-genotypic?
Elbasvir/Grazoprevir
28
New cards
Which HCV regimen is NOT pan-genotypic?
Ledipasvir/Sofosbuvir
29
New cards
Which HCV regimens should be taken with food?
Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir and Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir/Voxilaprevir
30
New cards
Which HCV regimens require an acidic environment for absorption?
Ledipasvir/Sofosbuvir, Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir, Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir/Voxilaprevir
31
New cards
A patient has Child-Pugh Class C cirrhosis and HCV genotype 2. Preferred regimen?
Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir + Ribavirin
32
New cards
A patient has metastatic liver cancer with less than 3 months to live and HCV. Should treatment be initiated?
No
33
New cards
Which population is especially susceptible to GERD?
Pregnant women
34
New cards
Name common GERD trigger foods.
Alcohol, chocolate, caffeine, citrus, tomatoes, spicy foods, fatty foods
35
New cards
What lifestyle modification has the greatest impact on GERD symptoms?
Weight loss
36
New cards
What GERD alarm symptom requires referral?
Dysphagia
37
New cards
What GERD alarm symptom requires referral?
GI bleeding
38
New cards
What is the mechanism of antacids?
Neutralize gastric acid
39
New cards
How quickly do antacids work?
Approximately 5 minutes
40
New cards
Can antacids heal GERD?
No
41
New cards
Which antacid ingredient commonly causes diarrhea?
Magnesium
42
New cards
Which antacid ingredient commonly causes constipation?
Calcium or aluminum
43
New cards
What is the mechanism of H2 receptor antagonists?
Competitive inhibition of H2 receptors on parietal cells
44
New cards
Which H2 blocker has the most drug interactions?
Cimetidine
45
New cards
What major limitation develops with H2 blockers during chronic use?
Tolerance (tachyphylaxis)
46
New cards
Do H2 blockers require renal adjustment?
Yes
47
New cards
What is the mechanism of PPIs?
Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+-ATPase
48
New cards
When should PPIs be administered?
30-60 minutes before breakfast
49
New cards
How long should initial OTC PPI therapy last?
14 days
50
New cards
Which PPI has the fewest drug interactions?
Lansoprazole
51
New cards
What are common PPI adverse effects?
Headache, diarrhea, constipation
52
New cards
What are the two most common causes of PUD?
H. pylori and NSAIDs
53
New cards
How does H. pylori survive in acidic environments?
Urease production
54
New cards
What are alarm symptoms of PUD?
Melena, hematemesis, anemia, weight loss
55
New cards
When does gastric ulcer pain typically occur?
Soon after meals
56
New cards
When does duodenal ulcer pain typically occur?
2-5 hours after meals or at night
57
New cards
Which H. pylori regimen is preferred in patients with penicillin allergy?
Bismuth quadruple therapy
58
New cards
Which H. pylori regimen contains bismuth, metronidazole, tetracycline, and a PPI?
Bismuth quadruple therapy
59
New cards
What test confirms H. pylori eradication?
Urea breath test
60
New cards
What is the mechanism of misoprostol?
EP3 receptor agonist
61
New cards
What are the two major adverse effects of misoprostol?
Diarrhea and uterine contractions
62
New cards
Why is misoprostol contraindicated in pregnancy?
Can induce abortion
63
New cards
What medication is a somatostatin analog used in GI disorders?
Octreotide
64
New cards
What is octreotide's mechanism?
Inhibits gastrin and histamine secretion
65
New cards
What are Rome IV criteria based on?
Recurrent abdominal pain associated with defecation or stool changes
66
New cards
Which diet is recommended for IBS?
Low-FODMAP diet
67
New cards
Which fruits are considered low-FODMAP?
Cantaloupe
68
New cards
Which medication is commonly used for IBS-related pain?
Amitriptyline
69
New cards
A patient with IBS-D drinks four alcoholic beverages daily. Which therapy is preferred?
Rifaximin
70
New cards
Why should eluxadoline be avoided in heavy alcohol users?
Increased risk of pancreatitis
71
New cards
What serious adverse effect is associated with alosetron?
Ischemic colitis/toxic megacolon
72
New cards
Linaclotide mechanism?
Guanylate cyclase-C agonist
73
New cards
Lubiprostone mechanism?
Chloride channel activator
74
New cards
Tegaserod mechanism?
5-HT4 partial agonist
75
New cards
Which IBS-C medication has the most contraindications and safety concerns?
Tegaserod
76
New cards
Histamine is synthesized from which amino acid?
Histidine
77
New cards
Which receptor subtype is responsible for gastric acid secretion?
H2 receptor
78
New cards
Which receptor subtype is targeted in allergy treatment?
H1 receptor
79
New cards
What activates proton pump inhibitors?
Acidic environment
80
New cards
Why are PPIs enteric coated?
Prevent degradation in stomach acid
81
New cards
How do PPIs inhibit the proton pump?
Irreversible covalent sulfide bond formation
82
New cards
Esomeprazole is which isomer of omeprazole?
S-isomer
83
New cards
Dexlansoprazole is which isomer of lansoprazole?
R-isomer
84
New cards
What GI drug is a prostaglandin analog?
Misoprostol
85
New cards
What receptor does misoprostol activate?
EP3 receptor
86
New cards
Lubiprostone is a synthetic analog of which endogenous mediator?
Prostaglandin
87
New cards
Linaclotide increases intracellular levels of what second messenger?
cGMP
88
New cards
Linaclotide activation ultimately increases secretion of which ion?
Chloride
89
New cards

HAV

MOA

is vacine ___

it ___ a treatment

it ___ be chronic

__transmitted

infection cause by hep A virus

preventable

no specfic

cannot

Fecal - Oral transmitted

90
New cards

HBV

MOA

it__ vacine

it ___ a treatment and ___ be emiated completly

it ___ be chronic

__transmitted

small envelped DNA virus ( 42nm Double dtear DNA viruse woth nuc;epcapscit cor)

Has a

has, cannot (treat in INK, PEG_INF)

can

blood and infected fluids

91
New cards

Antivirals HBV

92
New cards

HCV

MOA

it__ vacine

it ___ a treatment ___

it ___ be chronic

__transmitted

Positive-sense single starded RNAvisors

has no

has , goalSVR

can

blood

93
New cards

HCV intreatment

94
New cards

Cirrhosis

Signs/Symptoms

ESLD : CHild pugh Score

pathopysicolgly

well compensated = NOne , ELSD / decompensated = jaundic, asites , encephalopathy, variceal bleeding'.

Cirrhosiss leadns the HTN> relases vsoliraits >decrease bllod vol> activates RASS> NA and water rentention > asties

95
New cards

Variceal Hermorrhage

HVPG

prevention

signs

Treament

2nd prevention form rebleed

>12 mmhg

non seslectivve B blockers eg , propanol, nadolol, carvediol.

blood in vomit . weekness black stool (melena)

band ligation + ocetroide (lower portal pressue , stat immedialt 50mg IV LD and contnue for 72hrs) + antibiotic (reduce mortality , ceftriaxone 1gb IV for 5-7 dys)

NSSBB + blan

MOA: HTN = alt routs to systemic circulation = arge vairies = risk of bleed

96
New cards

AScites

signs

diagnosis

treatments

AE

increased abdominal girth, SOB, wgt gail

30-50 ml of fulid removed and checked

NOn pharm: retrict NA < 2g and fult to 1-1.5 L &tips

therapuetic : ablumin infusin (6-8 g L removed)

Pharm : diretics ex Sprionlactone 100mg max 400 (AE high K) , can take with Loop ex bumes . 40mg to 200 mg of sprionlactone to remove K

AE . volume depletion, hypotendion ,renal impairemnt

97
New cards

SPS

CAuse

Siginds

Diagnosis

treatment

prevention

bacterial overgrown

fever, abdominal pain. mental status change

PMN > 250

treat immediatly with Ceftriaxone @g IV Q24 × 5 days

Long term cipro or bactrim

98
New cards

HE

cuase

neurtoxin

treatment

prevention

reversal of slep shedule

Ammonia

Lactulose !st line: triate to effect of 2-3 stools /day (15-30ml) AE= dierraha

2nd line rifaimin

avoide benzodiazepines, zolpoidem, narcotics

99
New cards

Hepatorenal syndromore

cause

types

avoid

altered hemodynamics > splanchic and systemic vasodilation > aterial underfilling> poor renal absorbtion >acitivation of angiotension > vasoconstriction > decreased GFR

Hrs-CKD - SCr rise graduatlly, mange with na restriction , no diurectics, may need kidny trasplant

HRS AKi; SCr reises quickley , ocetrotide subQ q8H + midorinepo q8h or terliprssin

aviods NSAIDS snd bezos

100
New cards

Hep A

risk factos

Dignoisis markers

prevention