WBC HW Review

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162 Terms

1
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adult reference range WBC

4,500-11,000/uL

2
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calculate hemacytometer white cell count

dilution factor x # white cells per WBC counting area

0.1 x WBC counting area

3
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calculate absolute lymph count

% lymph x white count = # x 10³/uL

4
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calculate corrected WBC for NRBCs

WBC x 100

NRBC + 100

usually correct WBC when NRBC is 5 or more

5
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what stimulus causes CFU-GEMM cells to mature into CFU-GM?

IL-3 and GM-CSF

6
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describe primary granules

lysosomal and non-specific

7
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secondary granules appear in which phase?

myelocyte

8
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function of primary granules

supply lytic and neutralizing enzymes for phagocytosis

9
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which granulocyte stage is the last stage capable of mitotic division?

myelocyte

10
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% of peripheral blod granulocytes in the marginal pool?

50%

11
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capsule surrounding primary and secondary granules made up of what?

phospholipids

12
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what form do granulocytes store energy for their journey into tissues?

glycogen

(anaerobic glycolysis)

13
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what do superoxides produce?

hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide

14
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define respiratory burst

the sharp increase in oxygen uptake that macrophages experience during phagocytosiss

15
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specific granules in basophils contain which stain with the basic dye in Wright’s stain?

heparin sulfate

16
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at which stage of maturation are eosinophilic granules first expressed?

myelocyte

17
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how do eosinophils respond to adrenal corticosteroids?

they decrease in the presence of corticosteroids

18
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which cytokine is unique to eo maturation?

IL-5

19
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Eosinophils kill parasites by what?

lytic enzyme exocytosis

20
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myeloperoxidase in neutrophils is also found where?

monocytes

21
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which Colony stimulating factor is responsible for forming a monoblast from GEMM?

GM-CSF and M-CSF

22
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in peripheral blood, how many times larger is the pool of marginating monocytes comapred to circulating monocytes?

3 times

23
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function of macrophages?

recognize antigen and phagocytize

24
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where do lymph precursors differentiate to T or B cell?

primary lymphoid tissue

25
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memory T cells live how long?

YEARS

26
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when monocyte matures, it becomes

a macrophage

27
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tissue basophil aka

mast cell

28
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how does MPO and SBB separate acute lymphocytic from acute non-lymphocytic?

both positive for AML

both negative for ALL

29
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what describes acute leukemia?

rapid onset with greater than 20% blasts

30
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which chromosome with M3?

t(15;17)

31
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acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturation

which FAB distinction?

M1

32
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pathognomonic inclusion body in hematology lab in AML or AMoL is

auer rods

33
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SBB stains which part of cell

phospholipid capsules

34
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which cytochemical stain detects glycogen in cells?

periodic acid schiff (PAS)

35
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which cytoplasmic enzyme is found in monocytes?

non-specific esterase

36
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“kiddie leukemia” FAB category

L1

37
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dohle bodies and toxic gran mean what?

inflammation conditions

38
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polycythemia vera turns to which leukemia

AML

39
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acute malignant proliferation of erythroblasts (>50%) in marrow with moderate anemia is which FAB classification

DiGuglielmo’s syndrome (M6)

40
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what’s helpful about an LAP score?

it differentiates CML (low LAP) from leukemoid reaction (high LAP)

41
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block positive PAS stain in blast cell shows what?

acute lymphocytic leukemia

42
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which AML shows fluoride sensitive (non-specific) esterase activity?

Monocytic leukemia (M4/M5)

43
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philadelphia chromosme in how much of CML patients?

90%

44
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bundles of Auer rods are in which FAB stage?

M3

45
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what abnormal cell found in peripheral blood of MM patient?

plasma cell

46
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which WBC anomaly has no clinical significance?

Pelger-Huet

47
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which WBC anomaly has dohle-like inclusion bodies?

May-Hegglin

48
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Hurler’s and Hunter’s syndromes have which inclusions?

metachromatic granules (Reilly bodies)

49
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hyperlobulation of neutrophils means

B12-folate deficiency

MEGALOBLASTIC anemia

50
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most common ALL in adults

B cell ALL (L2)

51
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which ALL blasts have vacuoles in the cytoplasm

L3 (burkitt’s)

52
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Most L1 ALLs are what?

TdT and CALLA positive

53
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M3 leukemia defined as what?

promyelocytic

54
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M4Eo means what?

myelomonocytic leukemia with eosinophilia

55
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which AML shows megaloblastoid changes?

M6

56
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WHICH factor increases reticulum fibers in bone marrow found in M7 and myelofibrosis

platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)

57
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which cell line is CML

myeloid

58
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which cell line is PV

erythrocytes

59
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which cell line is myelofibrosis

fibroblasts

60
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which cell line is essential thrombocythemia?

megakaryocyte

61
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common finding in myelodysplastic syndrome

cytopenia, dysplasia, anemia

62
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which CD found on blast cells is on mature WBCs in MDS

CD34

63
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which refractory anemia close to being an acute leukemia?

RAEB

64
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cure for MDS and meyloproliferative disease

marrow transplantation

65
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over 90% of CLL are which type?

B cell type

66
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common finding on peripheral smear in CLL

smudge cells

67
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which lipid storage disease has glucocerebrosides?

Gaucher’s

68
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sea blue histocytes what type of disorder?

lipid metabolism disorder

69
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which cell is pathognomonic in Hodgkin’s disease?

Reed-Sternberg cell

70
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Hodgkin’s patient with organ involvement

IV

71
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type of hodgkin lymphoma composed of cells with multilobulated nculeus with delicate nuclear membranes, fine granular chromatin, small indistinct nucleoli (popcorn or L and H cells)

lymphocyte predominant

72
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what term is used if cell has chromosome count other than 46?

aneuploid

73
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term given for patient with 46 karyotype, XX, +8, -21?

pseudodiploid

74
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karyotype 47, XY, +8 -21 means what

male

trisomy 8

monosomy 21

75
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philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) found in which cells?

myeloid and lymphocyte

76
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mycosis fungoides describes what?

skin lesions progressing to tumor

77
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when mycosis fungoides T-helper cells invade peripheral blood, what’s it called?

Sezary syndrome

78
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in Waldenstrom’s macroglobulenemia, which aberrant cell makes monoclonal IgM?

plasmacytoid lymphocytes

79
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which lymphoma associated virus is incriminated in T cell leukemia/lymphoma?

HTLV-1

80
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which test is helpful in diagnosing CGD?

nitroblue tetrazolium test

81
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protein p210 found when the philadelphia chromosome is present has what kind of increased activity?

tyrosine kinase

82
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idiopathic myelofibrosis vs other types of chronic MPD

marro fibrosis is greatly increased

83
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how to calculate LAP stain

multiply the number and grade, then add ‘em up

84
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WHO blast criteria vs FAB criteria

WHO: >20% blast

FAB: >30% blasts in bone marrow

85
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immunophenotyping for WHO

Lymph progenitor: CD34

<p>Lymph progenitor: CD34</p>
86
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cytochemical stains for WHO

MPO and SBB (+) for AML and (=) for ALL

87
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cytochemical stains for FAB

M1-4: MPO, SBB, CAE (+)

M0: all = stains

M5: ACP, non-specific (+)

M6a: MPO, specific esterase, SBB (+)

M6: Acid phosphatase

M7: PAS (+)

88
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FAB immunophenotyping

is used

89
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how to differentiate WHO ALL?

immunophenotype, cytochemical lymphocytes (T, B, NK cells), and clinical features

<p>immunophenotype, cytochemical lymphocytes (T, B, NK cells), and clinical features</p><p></p>
90
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how to differentiate WHO ALL?

Acute: L1 L2

Burket’s Mature: L3

 

L1: Lymphoblastic Leukemia with homogeneity

L2: Lymphoblastic leukemia with heterogeneity

L3: Burkitt-type lymphoblastic leukemia

91
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how to differentiate WHO AML

knowt flashcard image
92
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how to differentiate FAB AML

Blast count, degree of dyspoiesis, cytochemical cell reactions

<p><span>Blast count, degree of dyspoiesis, cytochemical cell reactions</span></p>
93
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WHO MDS subgroups

MDS Subgroups:

1. MDS with single lineage dysplasia (MDS-SLD)

2. MDS with ring sideroblasts (MDS-RS)

• MDS-RS and single lineage dysplasia (MDS-RS-SLD)

• MDS-RS and multilineage dysplasia (MDS-RS-MLD)

3. MDS with multilineage dysplasia (MDS-MLD)

4. MDS excess blasts (MDS-EB)

• MDS-EB-1

• MDS-EB-2

5. MDS with isolated del(5q)

6. MDS, unclassifiable

7. Childhood MDS

• Refractory cytopenia of childhood (provisional)

94
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what’s the NBT test and reaction?

detect affected neutrophils in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD). If the neutrophil is able to produce the oxygen burst normally, it will reduce the NBT to a blue-black compound that makes the cell appear like a dark crystal. The affected cells cannot produce oxygen so they will not turn dark.

During a respiratory burst, there is a combination of metabolic activities. Phagocytosis increases that oxygen consumption 2-3 times, and glucose oxidation 2-10 times.

95
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what condition is NBT test diagnostic?

Chronic Granulomatous Disease, since the cells are morphologically normal but cannot make the H2O2 metabolites, so the patients suffer from recurrent infections.

96
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what type of lymphoma is Burkitt?

B-cell lymphoma

97
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Burkitt lymphoma describe the different types

Endemic Burkitt: EBV and involves the face and jaw

HIV associated Burkitt: EBV, and causes a “starry sky” biopsy of neoplastic cells. The sky is the neoplastic lymphs and stars are the body macrophages. The macrophages get ingested. The cells affected are the intense cytoplasmic vacuolization of ALL blasts, and the ingested macrophages.

98
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burkitt lymphoma positive stains

CD19, sIg, CD10, CD20, CD22

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burkitt lymphoma negative stains

CD5, CD23, Tdt

100
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how to differentiate burkett lymphoma from other lymphomas/leukemias?

C-MYC gene, which impacts the t(8;14), which is not found in DCLBCL

Starry sky, sIg+, t(2,8), t(8,22)