Exam #4 Review Ch. 13, 14, & 15: Iclicker + Wiley

the cell-mediated response of adaptive immunity is produced by

T cells

in adaptive immunity, the cells that generate the antibody response are

B cells

Which of the following subsets of T cells is invovled in preventing autoimmune attacks by the immune system

T regulatory cells (TR)

Which of the following class of antibodies is produced in response to allergies or infections with parasitic worms

IgE

Higher levels of IgG antibodies in a pts blood may indicate

later stages of an infection

In any given antibody molecule, where does antigen binding occur

Fab

Antigen processing in the cytosol is assoicated w/ class ____ MHC molecules?

I

Cells that attack self-antigens

are eliminated during lymphocyte development

How many different vaccines are recommned for children from birth to 6 yrs?

10

Which of the following vaccine types requires multiple boosters?

inactivated vaccines

Andrew Wakefield attempted to fraudulently link which type of vaccine to autism?

MMR

Which of the following cell types are NOT phagocytic?

natural killer cells

Which of the following is NOT an innate chemical defense?

high pH in GI tract

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a aspect of natural or innate immunity?

cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Which type of WBC is NOT involved in phagocytosis?

lymphocytes

Which complement pathway is activated by antibody binding to bacterial surfaces?

classical

Which complement pathway is activated by the binding of C3b directly to bacterial surfaces?

alternative

Antigens are best defined as …?

substances that generate an immune response

The cells of the immune system …?

are transported along the fibers of the RES and within the vessels of the circulatory and lymphatic systems

The immune strucuture shown in the diagram is a …?

lymph node

Which is NOT considered a secondary lymphoid organ?

bone marrow

The process in which many different lineages of immune cells develop from a single progenitor cell type is known as ..>?

hematopoiesis

innate immunity is characterized by

rapid responses to pathogen invasion

What small molecules secreted by WBC and are used to coordinate the activity of immune cells?

cytokines

When pathogens overcome innate responses, adaptive immunity provides a 3rd line of defense by?

launching a more vigorous attack w/ subsequent exposures

_____________ is lifelong protection against a pathogen following recovery from infection.

Natural active immunity

First line innate immune responses include

fever, barriers, washing actions

Adaptive immunity is characterized by _______. 

pathogen specificity

True or false: the immune system is a unique integration of of the circulatory, respiratoyr, and reticuloendothelial systems

false

A low to moderate fever is beneficial during an infection because the higher body temp does what?

• inhibits bacterial growth

• enhances interferon production

Where do B lymphocytes mature in?

bone marrow

what are examples of physical defenses?

mucus membrane, hair, fever

According to the findings of the 2008 Human Microbiome Project, the most abundant bacterial genus on the skin is ___________.

Janthinobacterium

Compared to a healthy toddler, the gut microbiome of a malnourished toddler is enriched in _________ but reduced in _________.

proteobacter; bacteriodetes

What bacterial pathogen is associated with gastric ulcers?

helicobacter

During hematopoiesis, what can myeloid progenitor give rise to?

neutrophils, megakaryocytes, red blood cells

What characterizes a monocyte?

phagocyte, bean-shaped nucleus

What are examples of a pattern recognition recepetor (PRR) that bind PAMPs to initiate innate immune responses?

Complement, TLRs

True or false following phagocytosis, an engulfed pathogen can be destroyed by the respiratory burst

true

What are heat and redness caused by? (they are 2 key signs of inflammation)

vasodilation

What is pathogen destruction by lysis caused by?

• the alternative complement cascade

• defensins

• protegrins

What is a defensive protein that initiates the antiviral protective effect?

interferon

What are hallmark features of adaptive immune responses?

memory, specificity

Which of the following would be the most immunogenic to a human?

Horse albumin, a large protein

In the process of clonal selection, pathogen binding to a preprogrammed receptor selects the lymphocyte that will under clonal expansion to produce the army of immune cells leading to its destruction.

true, clonal selection

Class I and II MHC molecules combine with antigen fragments to form a ______ which then binds a T cell receptor leading to activation.

neoantigen

A ________ has a CD8 coreceptor and eliminates viral-infected cells, cancer cells and foreign cells.

cytotoxic T cell

A neoantigen used to activate a T_C cell is made by the lysosomal degradation of a phagocytized antigen which binds a Class II MHC molecule.

false neoantigen

What degrades viral proteins, making fragments to load into Class 1 MHC molecules?

proteasome

What is known as TCR binding to both processed antigen and portions of an MHC molecule?

associative recognition

What cytokine plays a major role in both the early and later stages of T cell activation?

IL-2

How large is the induration produced by this positive Mantoux test?

2.5 cm

Antibody effector mechanisms include?

• mast cell activation

• enhanced opsonization

Which antibody classes provide natural passive immunity to infants? (

IgG and IgA

Which of the following are components of the BCR?

• IgM

• CR2

• Iga/IgB

Affinity maturation results in increasing more effective antisera production due to ______.

• somatic mutation leading to higher antibody affinity

• activation of memory cells with high affinity receptors

During a secondary response__________.

• IgG production occurs almost immediately

• there is a greater amount of IgG produced

• the host demonstrates immunity

Which antibody effector mechanism results in apoptosis?

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

What serious problem(s) is associated with variolation?

• patients were briefly contagious after variolation, making them a risk for starting an epidemic

• sometime patients developed smallpox and died

Which of the following features are desirable in a modern vaccine?

• can be stored at room temp

• minimal side effects

• easily administered

What type of vaccines provide strong primary responses because they closely mimic a natural infection?

Live attenuated

What vaccine is highly effective and considered to be the safest?

subunit

The 2018 data indicate the greatest resurgence in what infections due to reduced immunization rates?

mumps

What 2 vaccines does CDC recommend for children ages 13-18?

Flu & HPV

During the development of a new vaccine, which clinical stage involves testing patients with underlying medical conditions?

Phase III

Theories on the origin of autoimmunity include?

• genetic predisposition

• viral infection

• nutrient deficiencies

Numbness/weakness in 1 or more limbs, impaired vision and tremors due to autoantibodies attacking the myelin sheath describes ___________.

multiple sclerosis

An X-linked disorder resulting in no circulating antibodies due to impaired B cells describes _______.

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

Patients with a humoral immunodeficiency are most likely to suffer from opportunistic infections caused by __________.

bacteria