(P) HT Lec L1-L3 II

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1zZEb9YCQYeRTM9dbFum7feJjsHZRVZ7_O-Ip5BtMu0k/edit?usp=sharing

B

What is defined as the study of normal microscopic tissue and organ structures?

• a. Pathology

• b. Histology

• c. Histopathology

• d. Cytology

• e. Embryology

D

Who is recognized as the "Father of Cellular Pathology" for establishing the principle "Omnis cellula e cellula"?

• a. Zacharias Janssen

• b. Robert Hooke

• c. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

• d. Rudolf Virchow

• e. Louis Pasteur

B

What term describes any structural tissue change caused by disease or injury?

• a. Neoplasm

• b. Lesion

• c. Dysplasia

• d. Metaplasia

• e. Hyperplasia

C

What term refers to an abnormal, uncoordinated new growth of tissue forming a tumor?

• a. Hypertrophy

• b. Atrophy

• c. Neoplasm

• d. Metaplasia

• e. Dysplasia

D

A tumor characterized as localized, slow-growing, non-invasive, with well-differentiated cells is termed:

• a. Malignant

• b. Premalignant

• c. Dysplastic

• d. Benign

• e. Metastatic

B

What is a cancerous, rapidly growing tumor capable of local invasion and distant metastasis called?

• a. Benign

• b. Malignant

• c. Hyperplastic

• d. Metaplastic

• e. Atrophic

E

Which term defines an increase in the total number of cells in a tissue or organ?

• a. Hypertrophy

• b. Atrophy

• c. Dysplasia

• d. Metaplasia

• e. Hyperplasia

B

Which term defines an increase in individual cell size, resulting in overall organ enlargement?

• a. Hyperplasia

• b. Hypertrophy

• c. Metaplasia

• d. Dysplasia

• e. Anaplasia

C

A decrease in individual cell size leading to tissue or organ shrinkage is known as:

• a. Hypertrophy

• b. Hyperplasia

• c. Atrophy

• d. Metaplasia

• e. Dysplasia

A

What is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another mature cell type called?

• a. Metaplasia

• b. Dysplasia

• c. Anaplasia

• d. Hyperplasia

• e. Atrophy

A

Which term describes disordered growth and maturation of cells with nuclear atypia, considered a premalignant lesion?

• a. Dysplasia

• b. Hyperplasia

• c. Metaplasia

• d. Hypertrophy

• e. Atrophy

B

Post-mortem decomposition driven by intracellular enzymatic self-digestion is termed:

• a. Putrefaction

• b. Autolysis

• c. Fixation

• d. Necrosis

• e. Gangrene

A

Post-mortem decomposition driven by intestinal bacteria that produces foul odor, gas, and tissue discoloration is called:

• a. Putrefaction

• b. Autolysis

• c. Desiccation

• d. Sclerosis

• e. Pyknosis

C

Which historical figure published Micrographia in 1665, observed cork, and coined the term "cell"?

• a. Zacharias Janssen

• b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

• c. Robert Hooke

• d. Rudolf Virchow

• e. Theodor Schwann

D

Which early microscopist refined optical lenses and was the first to observe red blood cells, spermatozoa, and microorganisms in 1674?

• a. Zacharias Janssen

• b. Robert Hooke

• c. Rudolf Virchow

• d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

• e. Matthias Schleiden

C

Which routine stain colors nuclear details blue/purple and cytoplasm/extracellular matrix pink?

• a. Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS)

• b. Masson's Trichrome

• c. Hematoxylin & Eosin (H&E)

• d. Ziehl-Neelsen Stain

• e. Silver Stain

D

Which diagnostic stain is primarily used to highlight glycogen, fungal elements, and basement membranes?

• a. Hematoxylin & Eosin (H&E)

• b. Masson's Trichrome

• c. Ziehl-Neelsen Stain

• d. Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS)

• e. Silver Stain

B

Masson's Trichrome stain is specifically utilized to differentiate between which two tissue components?

• a. Glycogen vs. lipids

• b. Collagen vs. muscle

• c. Reticular fibers vs. elastic fibers

• d. DNA vs. RNA

• e. Fungi vs. acid-fast bacteria

A

Which stain is specifically designed to demonstrate acid-fast bacilli such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

• a. Ziehl-Neelsen Stain

• b. Masson's Trichrome

• c. Periodic Acid-Schiff

• d. Silver Stain

• e. H&E Stain

C

Which diagnostic technique uses labeled antibodies targeting specific cellular proteins for tumor classification?

• a. In situ hybridization (ISH)

• b. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

• c. Immunohistochemistry (IHC)

• d. Routine H&E staining

• e. Masson's trichrome staining

B

What is the standard routine fixative into which tissue specimens must be immediately submerged upon collection?

• a. 70% Ethanol (Alcohol)

• b. 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin (NBF)

• c. Pure Xylene

• d. Bouin's Solution

• e. Glutaraldehyde

A

What is the maximum number of patient cases allowed per biohazard packaging bag during transport?

• a. 1 patient case

• b. 2 patient cases

• c. 4 patient cases

• d. 5 patient cases

• e. 10 patient cases

C

What is the maximum number of specimen vials permitted per biohazard packaging bag during transport?

• a. 1 vial

• b. 2 vials

• c. 4 vials

• d. 6 vials

• e. 8 vials

E

How should kidney, ureter, bladder, or prostate calculi and inorganic foreign bodies be submitted to the laboratory?

• a. Submerged in 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin

• b. Suspended in sterile saline

• c. Frozen at -70°C

• d. In viral transport media

• e. Completely dry without fixative

D

Fresh or unfixed tissues required for microbial cultures or molecular testing should be stored at what temperature prior to shipping on dry ice?

• a. 4°C

• b. 0°C

• c. -20°C

• d. -70°C

• e. Room temperature

B

Bone marrow aspirate smears submitted alongside core biopsies must undergo which initial preparation step?

• a. Fixed in 10% NBF for 24 hours

• b. Completely air-dried

• c. Cleared with xylene

• d. Submerged in ethanol

• e. Decalcified in acid

A

Which biopsy modality involves the diagnostic removal of only a representative portion of a lesion?

• a. Incisional Biopsy

• b. Excisional Biopsy

• c. Core Needle Biopsy

• d. Punch Biopsy

• e. Shave Biopsy

B

What type of biopsy involves the therapeutic or diagnostic removal of the entire lesion along with surrounding borders?

• a. Incisional Biopsy

• b. Excisional Biopsy

• c. Fine Needle Aspiration

• d. Core Needle Biopsy

• e. Endoscopic Biopsy

E

Which biopsy method uses a cylindrical core blade that pierces the epidermis, dermis, and superficial subcutis?

• a. Shave Biopsy

• b. Excisional Biopsy

• c. Incisional Biopsy

• d. Fine Needle Aspiration

• e. Punch Biopsy

B

Which technique uses a thin-gauge needle to aspirate individual cells or fluid from suspicious masses?

• a. Core Needle Biopsy (CNB)

• b. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA)

• c. Punch Biopsy

• d. Shave Biopsy

• e. Stereotactic Biopsy

A

Which procedure uses a large-bore hollow needle with a specialized tip to extract an intact tissue cylinder?

• a. Core Needle Biopsy (CNB)

• b. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA)

• c. Shave Biopsy

• d. Punch Biopsy

• e. Excisional Biopsy

A

What technique utilizes mammography, MRI, or radiographic guidance to locate non-palpable lesions prior to excision?

• a. Wire-Localized / Stereotactic Biopsy

• b. Endoscopic Biopsy

• c. Shave Biopsy

• d. Excisional Biopsy

• e. Punch Biopsy

B

What procedure involves sampling tissues via a fiberoptic scope through natural orifices or small incisions?

• a. Surgical Resection

• b. Endoscopic Biopsy

• c. Punch Biopsy

• d. Fine Needle Aspiration

• e. Core Needle Biopsy

C

Which type of autopsy is conducted specifically to investigate sudden, suspicious, or violent deaths?

• a. Clinical Autopsy

• b. Hospital Autopsy

• c. Medicolegal / Forensic Autopsy

• d. Anatomical Autopsy

• e. Surgical Autopsy

E

What margin status is defined by neoplastic cells extending directly to the surgical outer edge of excised tissue?

• a. Clear Margins

• b. Negative Margins

• c. Free Margins

• d. Indeterminate Margins

• e. Positive Margins

D

What margin status indicates that no neoplastic cells are detected at the outer edges of the excised tissue?

• a. Positive Margins

• b. Dysplastic Margins

• c. Involved Margins

• d. Negative / Clear Margins

• e. Close Margins

C

What is the primary agent used during the routine fixation step of tissue processing?

• a. 100% Ethanol (Alcohol)

• b. Xylene

• c. 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin (NBF)

• d. Isopropanol

• e. Molten Paraffin Wax

B

What is the primary purpose of the fixation step in tissue processing?

• a. Replaces water with paraffin wax

• b. Cross-links tissue proteins to stop autolysis/putrefaction and preserve structural relationships

• c. Removes lipids and increases refractive index

• d. Dissolves calcium deposits from bone

• e. Stains cellular organelles for light microscopy

B

Which optional step in tissue processing dissolves calcium mineral deposits to prevent damage to microtome blades?

• a. Dehydration

• b. Decalcification

• c. Clearing

• d. Impregnation

• e. Mounting

C

What is the main objective of the dehydration process in tissue processing?

• a. Replaces dehydrating alcohol with xylene

• b. Dissolves calcium salts

• c. Removes intracellular and extracellular water from tissues

• d. Preserves antigenicity for immunohistochemistry

• e. Encases tissue in solid paraffin blocks

A

Which reagent sequence is standard for dehydrating tissue sections (≤ 4 mm thickness)?

• a. Ascending series: 70% > 90% > 100% Ethanol

• b. Descending series: 100% > 90% > 70% Ethanol

• c. Pure Xylene > 100% Ethanol > 70% Ethanol

• d. Molten Paraffin Wax > Xylene > Ethanol

• e. Formalin > Xylene > Ethanol

B

Why is ethanol considered inefficient for processing fat-rich tissues like breast tissue or lipomas?

• a. It causes excessive tissue swelling

• b. It is an inefficient lipid solvent

• c. It dissolves paraffin wax prematurely

• d. It prevents formalin penetration

• e. It decalcifies bone tissue

A

What is the primary purpose of the clearing step during tissue processing?

• a. Replaces dehydrating alcohol with an intermediate solvent miscible with ethanol and paraffin wax

• b. Removes intracellular water using ethanol

• c. Encases tissue in agar or nitrocellulose

• d. Cross-links tissue proteins

• e. Dissolves nuclear structures

C

Which chemical is the primary clearing agent used in standard conventional tissue processing?

• a. Ethanol

• b. Formalin

• c. Xylene

• d. Acetone

• e. Methanol

E

Why does xylene impart optical clarity ("clearing") to tissue samples?

• a. It lowers tissue density and weight

• b. It lowers the melting point of wax

• c. It binds tightly to nuclear DNA

• d. It precipitates cytoplasmic proteins

• e. It removes residual lipids and raises the refractive index of the tissue

B

What step in tissue processing replaces the clearing solvent inside the tissue matrix with molten paraffin wax?

• a. Dehydration

• b. Impregnation / Infiltration

• c. Embedding

• d. Microtomy

• e. Fixation

E

At what temperature should molten paraffin wax be maintained during tissue impregnation?

• a. Exactly 37°C

• b. 80–90°C

• c. 100°C

• d. 20°C

• e. Maintained at ~60°C

C

What step encases the infiltrated tissue into a solid, structured paraffin block for microtome sectioning?

• a. Grossing

• b. Impregnation

• c. Embedding

• d. Trimming

• e. Mounting

B

What process is used for small or friable tissue fragments (e.g., curettings) where they are first placed in a supporting medium (agar or nitrocellulose) before standard wax infiltration?

• a. Freeze-drying

• b. Double Embedding

• c. Vacuum infiltration

• d. Decalcification

• e. Rehydration

C

What is the standard thickness range for routine Hematoxylin & Eosin (H&E) sections?

• a. 0.25 µm

• b. 2 µm

• c. 3–8 µm

• d. 8–10 µm

• e. 12–15 µm

D

What is the recommended section thickness when preparing tissue for amyloid stains?

• a. 0.25 µm

• b. 2 µm

• c. 3–5 µm

• d. 8–10 µm

• e. 15–20 µm

A

What section thickness is specifically required for renal biopsy microtomy?

• a. 2 µm

• b. 5 µm

• c. 8 µm

• d. 10 µm

• e. 15 µm

A

What section thickness is required for electron microscopy examinations?

• a. 0.25 µm

• b. 2 µm

• c. 4 µm

• d. 8 µm

• e. 10 µm

B

Which embedding medium and knife combination is required for electron microscopy sectioning?

• a. Paraffin wax and standard metal knife

• b. Epoxy/acrylic resin and diamond knife

• c. Agar medium and glass knife

• d. Nitrocellulose and steel disposable blade

• e. Gelatin and microtome razor

B

What temperature range should a water bath flotation tank be set to relative to the melting point of embedding wax?

• a. 5-10C above the melting point

• b. 5-10C below the melting point

• c. Exactly at the melting point

• d. Room temperature (20C)

• e. 20-25C above the melting point

E

What happens to tissue ribbons if the flotation water bath is excessively hot?

• a. Persistent wrinkling

• b. Complete decalcification

• c. Tissue hardens into glass

• d. Autolysis accelerates

• e. Section distortion

B

Which slide adhesive is coated on glass slides to enhance tissue adhesion when heating must be avoided to preserve antigenicity for IHC?

• a. Xylene

• b. Poly-L-lysine or egg albumin

• c. Formalin

• d. Glycerol

• e. Paraffin wax

A

What term describes floating tissue fragments that transfer between cases in a flotation bath and cause diagnostic misinterpretation?

• a. Floaters

• b. Artifacts

• c. Emboli

• d. Inclusion bodies

• e. Precipitates

B

What type of automated processing machine keeps tissue cassettes stationary in a sealed chamber while fluids are pumped in and out?

• a. Carousel-Type Processor

• b. Enclosed Fluid-Transfer Processor

• c. Rotary Microtome

• d. Open-Beaker Processor

• e. Manual Dip Processor

E

What processing modification applies reduced pressure during processing to accelerate reagent penetration and assist air removal from porous tissues (e.g., lung)?

• a. Double Embedding

• b. Decalcification

• c. Heat Fixation

• d. Cryosectioning

• e. Vacuum Infiltration