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What are the four categories of lesions of the oral cavity in domestic animals?
Developmental anomalies, Inflammation, Disturbances of growth, and Neoplasia.
What are the two most important factors contributing to the rarity of oral infections?
The efficacy of oral secretions and the epithelial barrier.
What condition is caused by a surface growth of Candida spp., often seen in foals?
Thrush.
What may happen in the oral cavity if normal flora are killed by antibiotic use?
Sugar-loving organisms not generally present may colonize.
What substance, when present in high concentrations due to I/V fluid administration or Diabetes Mellitus, encourages the growth of sugar-loving organisms?
High blood glucose concentration.
What is Palatoschisis?
Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes of the maxilla.
What congenital defect results in communication between the oral and nasal cavities?
Palatoschisis (cleft palate).
Name one sequelae of Palatoschisis (cleft palate).
Failure to suckle and starvation, or aspiration pneumonia.
What is Cheiloschisis?
Incomplete fusion of the frontonasal process with the maxillary processes.
What animal normally has a split upper lip, known as a "hare lip"?
Rabbits.
Name one sequelae of congenital oral anomalies.
Difficulty in suckling, prehension, and mastication of food, starvation, aspiration pneumonia, or malposition of teeth.
What is the general term for inflammation of the oral cavity?
Stomatitis (pl. Stomatitides).
What is the term for inflammation of the gums?
Gingivitis.
What are the primary lesions of Vesicular Stomatitis (VS, FMD, VE, SVD)?
Vesicles.
What are the secondary lesions resulting from primary vesicular diseases?
Erosions, ulcers, and abscesses formation.
Name three viral causes of erosive and ulcerative stomatitis.
BVD, MCF, IBR, bluetongue, rinderpest, herpesviruses, calicivirus, FLV, or FIV.
What non-infectious systemic disease can cause erosive and ulcerative stomatitis?
Uremia.
What is one non-viral cause of erosive and ulcerative stomatitis?
Trauma due to sharp teeth, or chemicals like acids, alkalies, or erosive salts.
What is another name for Chronic Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis (CUPS)?
Ulcerative stomatitis and lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis.
Which two dog breeds are particularly susceptible to CUPS?
Maltese dogs and Cavalier King Charles spaniels.
What is the etiology often associated with CUPS?
Apposition of “kissing ulcers” to dental plaque.
What type of lesions suggest an inflammatory rather than infectious cause in CUPS?
Lymphocytic-plasmacytic lesions.
What is the sequela if Chronic Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis is left untreated?
Bone resorption may occur.
What is oral necrobacillosis an example of?
Secondary bacterial infection (often Fusobacterium necrophorum) leading to fibrinonecrotic stomatitis.
What term describes the condition resulting from oral necrobacillosis in calves?
Calf diphtheria.
What is the cause of Papular stomatitis in dogs?
Canine oral papillomatosis.
What causes Bovine papular stomatitis?
Parapox virus infection.
What is Noma, also known as "trench mouth"?
Pseudomembranous or gangrenous stomatitis seen in primates and dogs, involving spirochetes and fusiform bacteria.
What type of cells infiltrate the lamina propria in Lymphoplasmacytic stomatitis in cats?
Lymphocytes and plasma cells.
What characterizes Gingival hyperplasia structurally?
Hard, non-neoplastic focal or diffuse thickened gingiva composed of reactionary proliferated fibrous connective tissue +/- epidermis.
Which dog breed is often cited as having familial gingival hyperplasia?
Boxers older than 5 years of age.
What is the current preferred nomenclature for what was traditionally called Epulis?
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma.
Name three types of oral neoplasia listed.
Squamous cell carcinoma, Melanoma, Papilloma, Fibrosarcoma, or Osteosarcoma.
What is the most common oral neoplasm (60%) in aged cats?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the most common oral tumor in dogs?
Melanoma.
What is the typical prognosis for oral Melanoma in dogs?
Usually malignant (90%) with poor prognosis.
What is the prognosis for papilloma caused by papilloma virus infection in young animals?
Spontaneous regression within 1-3 months with long lasting immunity.
Where do Osteogenic sarcomas/osteosarcomas typically originate in the oral cavity?
The alveolar processes of the mandible and maxilla.
What disease in bovines, caused by Actinobacillus lignieresii, results in a stiff, fibrotic swelling of the tongue?
"Wooden-tongue".
What can result from the loss of lingual epithelium and exposure of nerves?
Pain, inappetence, ptyalism, and bruxism.
What type of epithelium forms the protective barrier of the tongue?
Thick, nonabsorptive, nonkeratinizing, stratified squamous epithelium.
What is the etiology of Pseudomembranous glossitis (Thrush)?
Candida albicans.
What happens to neutrophils in the alimentary tract at the end of their life span?
They are eliminated.
How do taste buds act as a defense mechanism?
They reject potentially toxic materials based on taste and tongue feel.
How does microbiota protect the oral cavity?
They occupy attachment sites that would otherwise be available to pathogens.
How does saliva physically protect the oral cavity?
It provides a flushing action, clearing potential pathogens to be swallowed, and forms a protective coating of the mucosa.
What antimicrobial enzyme is found in the zymogen granules of serous cells in saliva?
Lysozyme.
What immunoglobulin contributes to mucosal protection in saliva?
IgA.
What are the three physiological phases of digestion?
Pregastric, gastric, and intestinal.
What signal does the pregastric phase send to the stomach and intestines?
Signals to prepare for incoming food, described as "warming up".
Name the three major salivary glands.
Parotid gland, Sublingual gland, and Mandibular gland.
What are the three cell types found in the acini of salivary glands?
Mucous cells, Serous cells, and Myoepithelial cells.
What ion do Acinar Serous Cells actively pump into the acinar space?
Chloride ions (Cl ions).
What is the characteristic composition of primary saliva?
Plasma like and rich in NaCl.
What two ions do duct cells actively reabsorb?
Sodium (Na) and Chloride (Cl).
What ions are exchanged for the reabsorbed Na and Cl in the duct system?
Bicarbonate and Potassium (K).
What is the characteristic composition of saliva that reaches the mouth?
Slightly hypotonic, K-rich, and slightly alkaline.
What two components in saliva act as buffers?
Bicarbonate and phosphates.
How much saliva per day do ruminants produce, making it essential for rumen buffering?
150-200 L.
What digestive enzyme in omnivores, such as pigs and humans, begins carbohydrate digestion?
Alpha amylase.
What nerve is activated during the cephalic phase to prepare the stomach for incoming food?
Vagus nerve (CN X).
What two cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the salivary glands?
Facial Nerve (CN VII) and Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX).
How does sympathetic stimulation affect blood flow to the salivary glands?
Norepinephrine leads to vasoconstriction, making less fluid available.
What is the medical term for dry mouth?
Xerostomia.
What is the medical terminology for excessive secretion of saliva?
Ptyalism (Sialosis).
What cranial nerve transmits sensory stimuli to the mastication centers in the brain stem?
Trigeminal Nerve (CN V).
What condition can damage to the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) cause?
Paralysis of muscles of mastication (drop-jaw).
What two infectious diseases in veterinary medicine commonly feature Sialoadenitis?
Rabies and canine distemper.
What is a Ranula structurally defined as?
A cystic, saliva-filled distention of the duct, lined by epithelium.
What is a Salivary mucocele?
A pseudocyst filled with saliva that is not lined by epithelium.
What is a common etiology for a salivary mucocele?
Traumatic rupture of the duct of a sublingual salivary gland.
What substance acts as an anticoagulant in vampire bat saliva?
Draculin.
What substance produced by Asian Swiftlets is used for nest building?
Gelatinous saliva.