NASM CPT chapters 13-20

exercise technique and training instructions

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.

B

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?

Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression

Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern

B

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?

Cool-down phase

Interval phase

Conditioning phase

Warm-up phase

B

How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?

Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer

Increasing the velocity of each throw

Throwing the ball at the same height each time

Decreasing the velocity of each throw

B

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is correct?

A training method defined by intervals of high intensity broken up by short rest periods.

Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer rest periods.

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity.

Due to the high intensity, HIIT workouts require a lot of time

A

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?

Superiorly

Inferiorly

Medially

Laterally

B

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?

Multifidus

Diaphragm

Quadriceps

Latissimus dorsi

D

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?

Jogging/running

Sports competition

Resistance training

Rowing

C

What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?

Muscular hypertrophy

Strength

Muscular endurance

Stabilization

D

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?

An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program

A

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

Palms facing each other

Thumbs pointing up

Palms facing down

Thumbs pointing down

B

note: external rotation of the humerus

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle

Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing

Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx

A

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

Young children and older adults

Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins

Pregnancy and diabetes

Cancer and bleeding disorders

D

note: C is medical precautions, means you probably shouldn’t do it.

Contraindications means you absolutely shouldn’t do it.

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

Heart

Nerves

Bone

Soft tissue

B

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?

Cervical and lumbar

Cervical and sacral

Thoracic and lumbar

Cervical and thoracic

A

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

7 to 8 sets

3 or 4 sets

5 or 6 sets

1 or 2 sets

B

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

Vestibular system

Visual system

Somatosensory system

Hearing system

A

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

Somatosensory system

Auditory system

Vestibular system

Visual system

A

note: you’re asking them to close their eyes.

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading

Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading

A

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?

4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise

2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

C

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

Loading phase

Unloading phase

Stretch-shortening cycle

Amortization phase

C

note: one muscle lengthens, the other shortens.

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

Rhomboids

Upper trapezius

Sternocleidomastoid

Diaphragm

C

What is the definition of kinesiophobia?

Fear of standing

Fear of movement

Fear of stairs

Fear of heights

B

note: kinesio = movement

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?

Giant set

Complex training

Pyramid system

Drop set

B

note: heavy resistance followed by explosive power (similar in movement)

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

Medial collateral ligament injuries

Anterior cruciate ligament injuries

Concussions

Ankle sprains

D

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

Power

Stride rate

Stride length

Agility

C

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

Protraction

Elevation

Upward rotation

Retraction

D

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?

Isometric contraction

Eccentric contraction

Lengthening reaction

Stretch reflex

D

note: STRETCH

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?

Ballistic stretching

Active stretching

Static stretching

Dynamic stretching

C

note: stretch is held long enough to let GTO override muscle spindle

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes

5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds

2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

D

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?

Semi-dynamic balance

High-level balance

Static balance

Dynamic balance

D

note: semi-dynamic is maintaining balance over a changing base of support

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?

Power

Agility

Quickness

Speed

D

note: Quickness is the ability to react and change body position in all planes of motion with maximal rate of force production.

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?

Obliques

Pectoral group

Gluteal complex

Quadratus lumborum

B

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts

B

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?

Cable chop

Medicine ball woodchop throw

Bird dog

Reverse crunch

B

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

1 week

24 hours

48 to 72 hours

12 hours

C

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?

Reach to their knee

Reach to their shin

Reach to their waist

Reach to their toes

A

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions

15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

D

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

Adducted and internally rotated knees

Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet

Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch

C

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

9 or 10 drills per workout

4 to 8 drills per workout

2 or 3 drills per workout

1 or 2 drills per workout

B

note: kids get bored

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

Tuck jump with stabilization

Box jump-up with stabilization

Squat jump with stabilization

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

D

note: A is a regression

In which direction should a client look while performing the static levator scapular stretch?

Look straight ahead

Look in the axillary (armpit) region

Look up toward the sky

Look down toward the beltline

B

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

20%

10%

5%

30%

B

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

Somatosensory system

Visual system

Vestibular system

Auditory system

C

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?

Stretch reflex

Reciprocal inhibition

Isometric contraction

Autogenic inhibition

B

note: D is GTOs and muscle spindles

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?

Hip extension

Knee flexion

Hip flexion

Ankle dorsiflexion

A

note: involves extension of knee and hip

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

Decreased kyphosis

Increased lordosis

Increased kyphosis

Decreased lordosis

B

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?

Single-leg cable row

Bench press

Barbell squat

Medicine ball soccer throw

D

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

Strength Endurance Training

Stabilization Endurance Training

Maximal Strength Training

Muscular Development Training

C

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

Dead bug

Back extension

Plank

Medicine ball overhead throw

B

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8

A

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

60 minutes per week

75 minutes per week

120 minutes per week

90 minutes per week

B

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?

Prone dead bugs on floor

Instability training using a stability ball

Planking on a stable surface

Marching on a stable surface

B

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

The exercise targets large muscle groups.

The exercise is intense.

The exercise is rhythmic.

The exercise is continuous in nature.

B

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

5 times a week

3 times a week

4 times a week

6 times a week

A

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

Transverse abdominis

Rectus abdominis

Diaphragm

Sternocleidomastoid

A

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

Hip flexor

Gluteus medius

Erector spinae

Gluteus maximus

B

note: hip flexor = sagittal plane

What is sarcopenia?

Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Age-related loss in bone mineral density

Lower than normal bone mineral density

Chronic inflammation of the joints

A

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius

Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors

Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius

C

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

Multifidus

Latissimus dorsi

Pectoralis major

Iliopsoas

A

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?

Less braking force

Less stability

Less speed

Less forward drive

A

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

PAR-Q+

Body composition assessments

Strength assessments

Movement assessments

D

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure.

It involves expiring against a closed glottis.

It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

A

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

Retraction

Upward rotation

Elevation

Protraction

A

note: concentric

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

Develop aerobic efficiency

Develop an appropriate aerobic base

Develop anaerobic capacity

Improve anaerobic capacity and power

B

What is the peripheral heart action system?

A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest

A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days

B

note: improves circulation

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?

<15% per week

25% per week

20% per week

10% per week

D