SWT301-NHS-S4

Q. 701: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?

A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report

C

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Q. 702: A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks.

What is one possible use of such a report?

A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing.

A

Q. 703: Which tools help to support static testing?

A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.

D

Q. 704: Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?

A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring.

C

Q. 705: What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?

A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.

B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.

C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.

D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.

B

Q. 706: What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.

B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.

C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.

D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

A

Q. 707: Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven

A

Q. 708: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?

A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.

B

Q. 709: Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?

A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.

D

Q. 710: What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?

A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.

B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.

C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.

D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.

B

Q. 711: An exhaustive test suite would include:

A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions.

A

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Q. 712: Which statement about testing is true?

A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.

A

Q. 713: For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of the steps?

1. Open database and confirm existing customer
2. Change customer's marital status from single to married
3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6. Close the customer record and close the database

A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5

D

Q. 714: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:

I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?

A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.

C

Q. 715: Consider the following statements about regression tests:

I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

B

Q. 716: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques?

V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z. Statements exercised

A. V, W or Y
B. W, X or Y
C. V, Y or Z
D. W, X or Z

C

Q. 717: Review the following portion of an incident report.

1. I place any item in the shopping cart.
2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
4. I click the < Checkout > button.
5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.'
6. I click < Okay >.
7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6.

Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?

A. The steps to rep

B

Q. 718: Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?

1. Over-reliance on the tool
2. Greater consistency and repeatability
3. Objective assessment
4. Unrealistic expectations
5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7. Repetitive work is reduced

A. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
B. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
D. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7

C

Q. 719: Which of the following encourages objective testing?

A. Unit testing
B. System testing
C. Independent testing
D. Destructive testing

C

Q. 720: Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?

A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.
B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

D

Q. 721: Consider the following list of test process activities:

I. Analysis and design
II. Test closure activities
III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
IV. Planning and control
V. Implementation and execution

Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?

A. I, II,

III, IV and V.
B. IV, I, V, III and II.
C. IV, I, V, II and III.
D. I, IV, V, III and II.

B

Q. 722: Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?

A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
B. Find as many defects as possible.
C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
D. Prevent defects through early involvement.

A

Q. 723: Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?

A. Test management and control
B. Test specification and design
C. Test execution and logging
D. Performance and monitoring

B

Q. 724: Consider the following types of tools:

V. Test management tools
W. Static analysis tools
X. Modeling tools
Y. Dynamic analysis tools
Z. Performance testing tools

Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?

A. W, X and Y
B. V, Y and Z
C. V, W and Z
D. X, Y and Z

A

Q. 725: What is a test condition?

A. An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition
B. The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
C. Something that can be tested
D. A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run

C

Q. 726: Which of the following general testing principles are t rue?

Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects
Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects
Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks
Testing of safety-critical software is similar to testing web applications

A. I is true; II, III and IV are false
B. II is true; I, III and IV are false
C. I and II are true; III and N are false
D. II and III are true; I and IV are false

A

Q. 727: If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?

A. 15, 19 and 25 degrees
B. 17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
C. 18, 20 and 22 degrees
D. 16 and 26 degrees

A

Q. 728: By creating future tests based on the results of previous tests, a tester is demonstrating what type of informal test design technique?

A. Security testing
B. Non-functional testing
C. Exploratory testing
D. Interoperability testing

C

Q. 729: What is the purpose of confirmation testing?

A. To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.

B. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.

C. To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.

D. To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.

B

Q. 730: Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?

A. Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.

B. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.

C. Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.

D. Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.

B

Q. 731: Which of the following best describes integration testing?

A. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.
B. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
C. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
D. Integration of automated software test suites with the product.

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A

Q. 732: According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:

A. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
B. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
C. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
D. Follows the steps of a test procedure.

B

Q. 733: Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?

A. Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
B. Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
C. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest alculation rules.
D. Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.

C

Q. 734: Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are:

$0.25 up to 10 grams;
$0.35 up to 50 grams;
$0.45 up to 75 grams;
$0.55 up to 100 grams.

Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?

A. 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100
B. 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000
C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101
D. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

C

Q. 735: Consider the following decision table for Car rental.

Conditions

Rule 1

Rule 2

Rule 3

Rule 4

Over 23?

F

T

T

T

Clean driving record?

Don't care

F

T

T

On business?

Don't care

Don't care

F

T

Actions

Supply rental car?

F

F

T

T

Premium charge

F

F

F

T

Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?

TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record

TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record

A. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
B. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
C. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
D. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.

C

Q. 736: What is exploratory testing?

A. The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
B. A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
C. The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
D. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.

D

Q. 737: What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?

A. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
B. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
C. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
D. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.

B

Q. 738: A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?

A. Master test plan
B. System test plan
C. Acceptance test plan
D. Project plan

C

Q. 739: What is the best description of static analysis?

A. The analysis of batch programs
B. The reviewing of test plans
C. The analysis of program code or other software artifacts
D. The use of black-box testing

C

Q. 740: System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?

A. Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
B. Importance of early testing.
C. The absence of errors fallacy.
D. Defect clustering.

D

Q. 741: Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:

I. Identify and document the characteristics of a test item
II. Control changes to the characteristics of a test item
III. Check a test item for defects introduced by a change
IV. Record and report the status of changes to test items
V. Confirm that changes to a test item fixed

a defect
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Only I is a configuration management task.
B. All are configuration management tasks.
C. I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
D. I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.

D

Q. 742: A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:

System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document.

System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document.

During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations:

I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.

C

Q. 743: What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?

A. A separate scribe during the logging meeting
B. Trained participants and review leaders
C. The availability of tools to support the review process
D. A reviewed test plan

B

Q. 744: Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:

I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests.

II. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system.

III. It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.

IV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes.

Which of the statements are true?

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

Q. 745: Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Software testing can be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

II. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer s work.

III. Rigorous testing can help to reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.

IV. Rigorous testing is used to prove that all failures have been found.

A. I and III
B. II and III

C. II and IV

D. III and IV

A

Q. 746: Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?

A. Decision tables and state transition testing
B. Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
C. Decision tables and boundary value analysis
D. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis

D

Q. 747: Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?

A. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.

B. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.

C. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule.

D. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.

D

Q. 748: DDP formula that would apply for calculating DDP for the last level of testing prior to release to the field is

A. DDP = {Defects (Testers) Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
B. DDP = {Defects (Testers) + Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
C. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) + Defects (Testers)}
D. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) - Defects (Testers)}

C

Q. 749: What would trigger the execution of maintenance testing?

A. Inspection results and modification.

B. Migration and inspection results.
C. Migration and retirement of the system.

D. Alpha testing results and migration.

C

Q. 750: Popular specification-based techniques are:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision tables
D. All three described above

D

Q. 751: As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average.

COLOR: navy">What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?

A. It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail.

B. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources n Subsystem A.

C. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.

D. We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly.

A

Q. 752: Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the use of static analysis tools?

A. Static analysis tools can change the code to reduce complexity.

B. Static analysis tools are intended to support developers only.

C. Static analysis tools aid in understanding of code structure and dependencies.

D. Static analysis tools cannot be used to enforce coding standards.

C

Q. 753: Which of the following best describes typical test exit criteria?

A. Reliability measures, number of tests written, and product completeness.

B. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, cost, schedule, tester availability and residual risks.

C. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, amount of time spent testing and product completeness, number of defects.

D. Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

B

Q. 754: How does testing contribute to software quality?

A. Testing ensures that the system under test will not error out in a production environment.

B. Testing identifies defects which ensures a successful product will be released to market.

C. Testing increases the quality of a software system by avoiding defects in the system under test.

D. Testing through verification and validation of functionality identifies defects in the system under test.

D

Q. 755: A company is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employee s length of service in the company. The bonus calculation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35% for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input.

How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?

A. Two equivalence partitions.

B. Three equivalence partitions.

C. Four equivalence partitions.

D. Five equivalence partitions.

C

Q. 756: Which of the statements about reviews are correct?

I. Reviews are useful because, through their use, defects can be found early, resulting in cost savings.

II. Reviews are useful because they help management understand the comparative skills of different developers.

III. Testers should not get involved in specification reviews because it can bias them unfavorably.

IV. Many early defects are found in reviews, lengthening the time needed for the development life cycle

A. I

B. IV

C. I and IV

D. I and III

A

Q. 757: What is integration testing?

A. Integration of automated software test suites with the application under test.

B. Testing performed to expose faults in the interaction between components and systems.

C. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration with the rest of the system.

D. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.

B

Q. 758: Below you find a list of descriptions of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is most likely a failure?

A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.

B. One source code file included in the build was the wrong version

C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.

D. The developer misinterpreted the computational requirement for that algorithm.

A

Q. 759: Which one of the following describes best the difference between testing

and debugging?

A. Testing shows failures that are caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

B. Testing pinpoints the defects. De bugging analyzes the faults and proposes preventing activities.

C. Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

A

Q. 760: Which of the following is a good reason for a developer to use a Test Harness tool?

A. To help the developer to compare differences between files and databases.

B. To reduce the quantity of component tests needed to be run.

C. To make it easier for developers to peer-test each other s code.

D. To simplify running unit tests when related components are not available yet.

D

Q. 761: Which of the following is true of acceptance testing?

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A. A goal of acceptance testing is to stress-test the system.

B. A goal of acceptance testing is to establish confidence in the system.

C. Acceptance testing is performed by technical staff.

D. Acceptance testing is only used to address functionality issues within the system.

B

Q. 762: An estimate of resources should be made so that an organization can create a schedule for testing. Which of the following approaches can be used for creating an estimate?

I. A skills-based approach, in which the estimate is based on all the testers skills.

II. An expert-based approach, in which the owner or other expert creates the estimate.

III. A metrics-based approach, in which the estimate is based on previous testing efforts.

IV. A bottom-up approach, in which each tester estimates their work and all estimates are integrated.

A. II, III, and IV

B. I, III, and IV

C. I and IV

D. II and III

D

Q. 763: When conducting reviews, psychological sensitivity is required. Which mistake often occurs when conducting reviews and may lead to interpersonal problems within teams?

A. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product are already found and fixed by the developers.

B. Due to time constraints, testers and reviewers do not believe they can afford enough time to find failures.

C. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against humans instead of against the software product.

D. Testers and reviewers are not sufficiently trained to accurately identify failures and faults in the item under review.

C

Q. 764: Which of the following statements about functional testing is TRUE?

A. Functional testing is primarily concerned with what a system does rather than how it does it.

B. Control flow models and menu structure models are used primarily in functional testing.

C. Functional testing includes, but is not limited to, load testing, stress testing and reliability testing.

D. Functional testing is often referred to as structural testing by testers and developers.

A

Q. 765: Which of the following statements about test design are TRUE?

I. During test design, the test cases and test data are created and specified.

II. If expected results are not defined, a plausible but erroneous result may be accepted as correct.

III. The IEEE 829 standard describes the content of test design and test case specifications.

IV. Test design is a formal process in which the conditions to be tested are determined.

A. II, III and IV

B. III and IV

C. I and IV

D. I, II and III

D

Q. 766: What factors should an organization take into account when determining how much testing is needed?

I. Level of risk

II. Tools to be used during test sub-project

III. Project constraints such as time and budget

IV. Skill of the testers

V. Expected selling cost of the system

A. All of the factors should be taken into account.

B. I and III

C. I, III and IV

D. I, II, IV, and V

B

Q. 767: What is testing without executing the code?

A. Non-functional testing.

B. Structure-based testing (white box).

C. Static testing.

D. Functional testing (black box).

C

Q. 768: What is the purpose of regression testing?

A. It enables us to reuse all our tests to improve ROI.

B. It can be used to replace acceptance testing.

C. To reduce the amount of impact analysis we must do when modifying a system.

D. To discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of a change.

D

Q. 769: For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage?

Procedure X

Read (Color) // Input color from user

IF (Color == Red ) THEN
Call Roses(Color)

ELSEIF (Color == Blue ) THEN

Call Violets(Color)

ELSE

PRINT User is no Shakespeare

SaveToDatabase(Color)

End Procedure X

A. 5

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

B

Q. 770: Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?

A. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by dynamic testing.

B. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the software.

C. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product documentation.

D. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early.

B

Q. 771: Given the following sample of pseudo code:

Roman'">01 Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits

03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then

04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)

05 If breed = "No"

06 Print "Keep male and female rabbits apart!"

07 End if

08 End If.

Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement "06" is executed?

A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = "yes".

B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = "no".

C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = "yes".

D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = "no".

B

Q. 772: Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-model after system testing?

A. System Integration Testing

B. Acceptance Testing

C. Regression Testing

D. Component Integration Testing

A

Q. 773: A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?

A. Decision testing.

B. Statement testing

C. State transition testing

D. Equivalence partitioning

A

Q. 774: Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four defect reports submitted.

Tester ID

Incident Description

Inputs / Expected & Actual Results

Business Priority
(1 High
2 Medium
3 Low)

Tester 1

User Log-on validation error

Entered user ID of Ram Kumar & password ABC123 but got an error message

1

Tester 2

Log-on does not meet requirements

Inputs: Entered valid user ID & password

Expected result: Main menu screen to be displayed

Actual result: Error saying incorrect password

2

Tester 3

Log-on password validation error

Inputs: User ID Ram Kumar & password ABC123

Expected result: Main menu screen

Actual result: Error Message Incorrect password

This test has worked many times before

2

Tester 4

Password validation error

Inputs: User ID

D

Q. 775: Which of the following software work product can be used as a basis for testing?

A. Incremental scenarios
B. Design documents
C. Undocumented features
D. V-model specifications

B

Q. 776: Match the test design techniques to the correct descriptions.

S. Black-box technique
T. White-box technique
U. Structural-based technique
V. Specification-based technique

1. Selecting test cases based on documentation
2. Ignoring the internal structure of the system

A. S1, S2, U1 and U2
B. T1, T2, U1 and U2
C. S1, S2, V1 and V2
D. T1, T2, V1 and V2

C

Q. 777: Given the following flow chart diagram:

What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100%decision coverage, respectively?

A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.

B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.

C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.

D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3

C

Q. 778: Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence?

a. Tests designed by a fellow-member of the design team.

b. Tests designed by a different group within the organization.

c. Tests designed by the code author.

d. Tests designed by different organization.

A. c, a, b, d.

B. d, b, a, c

C. c, a, d, b.

D. a, c, d, b.

A

Q. 779: During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?

A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

B. Test implementation and execution

C. Test analysis and design

D. Test planning and control

C

Q. 780: Which of the following are structure-based techniques?

a. Decision table testing

b. Boundary value analysis

c. Multiple condition coverage

d. Use case testing

e. Decision testing

A. a and c.

B. b and d.

C. b and e.

D. c and e.

D

Q. 781: Which statement BEST describes the role of testing?

Roman'">A. Testing ensures that the right version of code is delivered
B. Testing can be used to assess quality.

C. Testing shows that the software is error free.

D. Testing improves quality in itself.

B

Q. 782: The following table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule.

Test Proce-dure ID

Business Priority
(1 High
2 Medium
3 Low)

Dependencies on test procedures

Other dependencies

P

1

Can not start unless R has completed

Q

1

None

Regression testing only

R

2

None

None

S

2

None

None

T

3

None

Delivery of the code for this part of system is running very late

U

3

None

None

Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.

Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?

C

Q. 783: Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?

A. Each test level has the same test objective.

B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.

C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.

D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.

D

Q. 784: Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?

a. Adapt planning based on test results.

b. Create test specifications.

c. Plan tests.

d. Write or review a test strategy

A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester

B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.

C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester

D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.

D

Q. 785: The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.

Picture

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G

Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G

Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G

Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?

A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.

D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.

A

Q. 786: Which of the following statements is true?

A. Testing cannot prove that software is incorrect.

B. Testing can prove that software is either correct or incorrect.

C. Testing cannot prove that software is correct.

D. Testing can prove that software is correct.

C

Q. 787: Which of the following statements describe why experience-based test design techniques are useful?

a. They can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents.

b. They can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques.

c. They make good use of tester's knowledge, intuition and experience.

d. They are an effective alternative to formal test design techniques.

A. a and b.

B. b and d

C. c and d

D. b and c.

D

Q. 788: Under what circumstances would you plan to perform maintenance testing?

a. As part of a migration of an application from one platform to another.

b. As part of a planned enhancement release.

c. When the test scripts need to be updated.

d. For data migration associated with the retirement of a system

A. a, b and c

B. b, c and d

C. a, b and d.

D. a, c and d

C

Q. 789: A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper or lower case. Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?

A. Feeds

B. F33ds

C. FEEDS

D. fEEDs

B

Q. 790: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an incident report?

A. Suggestions for correcting the problem

B. Degree of impact on stakeholder interests.

C. Date the incident was discovered.

D. Life cycle process in which the incident was discovered

A

Q. 791: Which
of the following is a standard for test documentation?

A. IEEE Std. 1028

B. EEE Std. 1044

C. ISO 9126.

D. IEEE Std. 829

D

Q. 792: In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?

A. Test implementation and execution.

B. Test planning and control

C. Test analysis and design

D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

A

Q. 793: Which of the following is a specification-based technique?

A. Use Case Testing

B. Error Guessing.

C. Condition coverage

D. Statement Testing.

A

Q. 794: Given the following state table:

Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?

A. 'Off' from 'Display Channel 1'.

B. 'Channel 2' from 'Display Channel 1'.

C. 'Stby' from 'Live'.

D. 'Channel 2' from 'Live'.

A

Q. 795: Which of the following types of defect are typically found in reviews rather than in dynamic testing?

a. Deviations from standards.

b. Defects in interface implementation.

c. Poor maintainability of code.

d. Poor performance of the system.

e. Defects in requirements.

A. a, c and e.

B. a, b and d.

C. b, d and e.

D. a, c and d.

A

Q. 796: Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):

i. Exploratory Testing

ii. Equivalence Partitioning

iii. Decision Testing

iv. Use Case Testing

v. Condition coverage

x. Specification-based

y. Structure-based

z. Experienced-based

A. x = i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.

B. x = i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii

C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.

D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.

C

Q. 797: Which of the following is a purpose of the review 'kick off' activity?

A. Explain the objectives

B. Select the personnel group

C. Document results

D. Define entry and exit criteria

A

Q. 798: Which one of the following is true of software development models?

A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.

B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.

C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the project.

D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.

C

Q. 799: Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools?

A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data

B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data

C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file

D. Recording test scripts and playing them back

C

Q. 800: Which of the following is an example of a product risk?

A. Software that does not perform its intended functions

B. Failure of a third party

C. Problems in defining the right requirements

D. Skill and staff shortages

A