3rd Degree K Test #1

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Last updated 9:30 PM on 9/3/26
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80 Terms

1
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What is the primary role of airpower in joint air operations?

To achieve control of the air, enabling freedom of action and movement while preventing enemy air and missile threats.

2
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What is Global Precision Attack?

The ability to hold a target at risk or strike rapidly and persistently, creating swift, decisive, and precise effects across multiple domains.

3
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What does Rapid Global Mobility refer to?

The rapid movement of resources to, from, or within a theater by air, extending operational reach and positional advantage.

4
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What is Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR)?

An activity that synchronizes and integrates the planning and operation of sensors, assets, processing, exploitation, dissemination, and analytic systems.

5
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What does Command and Control (C2) enable?

It enables commanders to direct forces across domains to achieve mission objectives by integrating operations and maintaining situational awareness.

6
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What is Space Domain Awareness (SDA)?

The timely, relevant, and actionable understanding of the operational environment for planning and executing space operations.

7
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What is Combat Power Projection in the space domain?

Offensive and defensive military force in, from, or to the space domain, including navigation warfare.

8
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What is the significance of Positioning, Navigation, and Timing (PNT)?

It is a global, multi-use space-based service essential to C2, movement and maneuver, and fires in military campaigns.

9
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What is the purpose of Satellite Communications (SATCOM)?

To operate spacecraft constellations that support beyond-line-of-sight communication links critical to C2.

10
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What does Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) involve?

An integrated operations and intelligence activity that synchronizes and integrates the planning and operation of sensors and dissemination systems.

11
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What is Environmental Monitoring?

Sensing, characterizing, and exploiting the natural environment.

12
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What is the function of Missile Warning systems?

To provide time-critical event processing and data release for decision-maker notification.

13
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What are the four Major Performance Areas (MPA)?

Executing the Mission; Leading People; Managing Resources; Improving the Unit.

14
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What does 'Executing the Mission' entail?

Effectively using knowledge, initiative, and adaptability to produce timely, high quality/quantity results.

15
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What is the definition of 'Leading People'?

Fostering cohesive teams, effectively communicating, and using emotional intelligence to take care of people.

16
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What does 'Managing Resources' involve?

Managing assigned resources effectively and taking responsibility for actions to maximize performance.

17
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What is meant by 'Improving the Unit'?

Demonstrating critical thinking and fostering innovation to find creative solutions.

18
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What does Job Proficiency refer to?

Demonstrating knowledge and professional skill in assigned duties to support the mission.

19
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What is Adaptability in the context of executing the mission?

Adjusting to changing conditions while accomplishing the mission.

20
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What does Initiative mean in a military context?

Assessing and taking action to complete a task that influences the mission.

21
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What does Inclusion and Teamwork involve?

Collaborating effectively to achieve an inclusive climate and recognizing others' needs.

22
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What is Emotional Intelligence?

Exercising self-awareness and managing personal emotions effectively.

23
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What does Communication mean in leadership?

Articulating information clearly and in a timely manner through active listening.

24
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What is Stewardship in resource management?

Demonstrating responsible management of assigned resources.

25
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What does Accountability refer to?

Taking responsibility for actions and demonstrating reliability and transparency.

26
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What is Decision Making in the context of improving the unit?

Making ethical, well-informed, and timely decisions.

27
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What does Innovation mean in a military setting?

Thinking creatively about solving problems and implementing improvements.

28
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What does 'Needs Improvement' mean on the MPA Proficiency Scale?

Cadet needs further growth to enhance understanding and/or performance.

29
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What does 'Developing' indicate on the MPA Proficiency Scale?

Cadet understands the quality but requires prompting to demonstrate it consistently.

30
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What does 'Proficient' mean on the MPA Proficiency Scale?

Cadet understands the quality and demonstrates it consistently.

31
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What does 'Highly Proficient' indicate?

Cadet consistently demonstrates the quality and influences others to develop it.

32
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What does 'Exceptionally Skilled' mean?

Cadet consistently demonstrates the quality and proactively influences others' growth.

33
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What are cadet supervisors responsible for in the MPA process?

Providing initial and mid-term CCA feedbacks and a final assessment for each cadet.

34
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What must all cadet raters be familiar with?

The Cadet Leadership Qualities (CLQs) for informed ratings.

35
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What takes precedence if SPINS conflict with SOPs?

The latest SAMI Special Instructions (SPINS).

36
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What determines what can be evaluated and deducted during a SAMI?

The official checklist.

37
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Can rooms be changed from SAMI to AMI before 'Inspection complete'?

No.

38
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Who calls the room to attention and reports it ready?

The highest-ranking cadet present, or if multiple of same rank, first cadet alphabetically.

39
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What forms must be prepared for the room inspection?

One AFCW Form 301 for the room and one AFCW Form 304A for every occupant.

40
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What is the door/excusal standard for inspected rooms?

Doors must be open by cease cleaning; a room not being evaluated must have an MFR posted.

41
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What is the name/job plate standard?

Every occupant must have a name plate displayed; job plates must be displayed within 30 days.

42
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At what angle should vanity mirrors and cabinets be opened?

90 degrees.

43
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What items are authorized on the valet?

Coffee pots, battery-powered air fresheners, and liquid soap dispensers.

44
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What is the two-person room towel arrangement?

Each side has a white towel and washcloth, folds facing the room.

45
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What is the laundry standard?

All laundry must be in a closed/sealed bag or container.

46
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What is the rifle/training weapon security standard?

Training weapons must be locked;

47
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What is the trashcan standard?

Trashcan must be clean and empty with no liner.

48
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What are the drawer opening measurements?

Top drawer: 8 inches; bottom drawer: 12 inches.

49
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How many military clothing drawers are required?

One per occupant.

50
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What is the minimum number of beds in SAMI configuration?

At least one SAMI-configured bed per occupant.

51
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What is the bed wrinkle standard?

Wrinkles greater than 3 inches are unsatisfactory.

52
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What is the hospital corner standard?

The class-colored blanket should form roughly a 45-degree fold.

53
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What are the bed collar measurements?

Collar is 18 inches from the headboard and 6 inches wide.

54
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What is the shoe rack military footwear requirement?

Each occupant displays one pair of low quarters and one pair of coyote brown boots.

55
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What items are authorized on the desk?

Monitors, mouse, printers, school supplies(no loose papers), books, desk lamps, water bottles, and coins.

56
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What is the security drawer standard?

Security drawers must be locked unless completely empty.

57
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What is the entire-room lighting standard?

All vanity, overhead, and desk lights must be on.

58
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What counts as an unsecured valuable?

Credit/debit cards, money, or ID left out in the open.

59
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What is the large-item rule?

No more than 3 total large items larger than 18 inches Unless the item is an exception.

60
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What is the refrigerator size limit without Sq/CC approval?

No taller than 34 inches, wider than 21 inches, or deeper than 23 inches.

61
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What is the plant limit?

No plant may exceed 18 inches in any dimension, with a maximum of 2 plants per cadet.

62
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What is forthrightness?

Being direct and honest.

63
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What is a precept?

A rule, law, regulation, or code that provides a boundary of conduct.

64
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Why is the Honor Code more than just a regulation?

Its precepts are derived from virtues.

65
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Which virtue supports 'do not lie'?

Honesty.

66
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Which virtue supports 'do not steal'?

Respect.

67
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Which virtues support 'do not cheat'?

Honesty and Respect.

68
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Which virtues support 'do not tolerate'?

Loyalty and Accountability.

69
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Define lying.

Making an assertion with the intent to deceive.

70
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What is the rule on equivocation or quibbling?

It falls within the Honor Code's jurisdiction as lying.

71
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Define stealing.

Intentionally depriving someone of property or service without permission.

72
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Define cheating.

Committing an act with the intent to receive undeserved credit.

73
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Name common examples of cheating.

Crib notes, plagiarism, unauthorized AI use, etc.

74
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Define toleration.

Failure to promptly address a suspected violation of the Honor Code.

75
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What must you do if you suspect an Honor Code violation?

Encourage the cadet to report the matter to their SDCH, follow up within five duty days, and if the cadet does not report it, you are required to report it.

76
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What two elements are required for an Honor Code violation?

Act and intent.

77
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Define 'act' in an honor case.

A deed that falls under lying, stealing, cheating, or tolerating.

78
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Define 'intent' in an honor case.

The state of mind concerning the purpose of the act.

79
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Can intent exist only briefly or after the act?

Yes.

80
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Does voluntary intoxication excuse an honor violation?

No.