Gyn- Intro & Menstrual Physiology

studied byStudied by 0 people
5.0(1)
learn
LearnA personalized and smart learning plan
exam
Practice TestTake a test on your terms and definitions
spaced repetition
Spaced RepetitionScientifically backed study method
heart puzzle
Matching GameHow quick can you match all your cards?
flashcards
FlashcardsStudy terms and definitions
Get a hint
Hint

The study of women and diseases that affect them is known as _____

1 / 103

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no one added any tags here yet for you.

104 Terms

1

The study of women and diseases that affect them is known as _____

gynecology

New cards
2

The management of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium is known as ______

obstetrics

New cards
3

What bones form the border of the true pelvis?

3 innominate bones of hip (ilium, ischium, pubis), sacrum, and coccyx

New cards
4

What is between the vestibule and the anus?

perineum

<p>perineum</p>
New cards
5

the muscular tube that is a potential space (not sitting open, collapsed) and extremely distensible is the _____

vagina

New cards
6

What regions is the area surrounding the uterine cervix divided into?

anterior fornix, posterior fornix, 2 lateral fornices

New cards
7

The area where fallopian tubes enter the uterus is known as the _____

cornu

<p>cornu</p>
New cards
8

The major divisions of the uterus, body and cervix, is separated by the ____

isthmus

New cards
9

How does the uterus normally appear?

pear shaped, thick walled, muscular organ

New cards
10

What are the layers of the uterine wall?

serial layer → outer

myometrium → firm, thick, intermediate coat of smooth muscle

endometrium → inner mucosal lining

New cards
11

The uterus is supported by ______

ligaments

<p>ligaments</p>
New cards
12

The neck of the uterus, aka the lower, narrow portion of the uterus where it joins w/ the top end of the vagina (fusion of mullerian ducts); and is cylindrical/conical in shape and protrudes through the upper anterior vaginal wall is known as the

cervix / cervix uteri

New cards
13

The purpose of which organ is egg transport and site of fertilization to form a zygote?

fallopian tubes

New cards
14

The purpose of which organ is gametogenesis- egg/ova/gamete production?

ovary

New cards
15
<p>what type of cervical os?</p>

what type of cervical os?

nonparous / nulliparous

New cards
16
<p>what kind of cervical os?</p>

what kind of cervical os?

parous / multiparous or instrumentation

New cards
17

when would the ovaries be palpable?

reproductive years 50/50- based on timing in menstrual cycle (less often if on BCPS)

postmenopausal - variable; enlargement = alarm

New cards
18

The fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and upper 2/3s of the vagina develop from ______

2 paired mullerian ducts

New cards
19

What is derived from germ cells?

ovaries

New cards
20

What arises from the sinovaginal bulb?

lower vagina

New cards
21

Mullerian defects is often discovered due to _____

infertility

New cards
22

What kind of abnormalities commonly accompany Müllerian duct defects due to the close proximity of development?

renal

New cards
23

When one or both Müllerian ducts don’t develop fully, producing abnormalities such as uterine agenesis or hypoplasia (b/l) or unicornuate uterus (u/l), this is known as ______

organogenesis

New cards
24

The process during which the lower segments of paired Müllerian ducts fuse to form the uterus, cervix, and upper vagina, this is known as _____

lateral fusion

New cards
25

Fusion of the ascending sinovaginal bulb with the descending mullerian system, resulting in a patent vagina, is referred to as ____

vertical fusion

New cards
26

incomplete vertical fusion results in _____

imperforate hymen

New cards
27

failure of lateral fusion results in _____

bicornuate or didelphys uterus

New cards
28

After the lower Müllerian ducts fuse, a central septum is present, referred to as _____

septal reportionf

New cards
29

failure of septal resorption results in ____

septate uterus

New cards
30

What are the 3 phases of development of complete formation and differentiation of the mullerian defects?

organogenesis, fusion, septal resorption

New cards
31

What class mullerian defect is this?

  • hypoplasia / agenesis → no reproductive potential aside from IVF of harvested ova and implantation in a host

class I

New cards
32
<p>What class mullerian defect is this?</p><ul><li><p><strong>unicornuate uterus</strong> → result of complete/almost complete arrest of development of 1 Müllerian duct</p><ul><li><p>incomplete arrest (MC) → rudimentary horn w/ or w/o functioning endometrium</p></li><li><p>if horn obstructed, may need surgery, enlarging pelvic mass</p></li></ul></li><li><p>if contralateral healthy horn is almost fully developed, a full term pregnancy is believed to be possible</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect is this?

  • unicornuate uterus → result of complete/almost complete arrest of development of 1 Müllerian duct

    • incomplete arrest (MC) → rudimentary horn w/ or w/o functioning endometrium

    • if horn obstructed, may need surgery, enlarging pelvic mass

  • if contralateral healthy horn is almost fully developed, a full term pregnancy is believed to be possible

class II

New cards
33
<p>What class mullerian defect is this?</p><ul><li><p><strong>didelphys uterus</strong> → results from complete confusion of both ducts</p></li><li><p>individual horns are fully developed and almost normal in size</p></li><li><p>2 cervices inevitably present</p></li><li><p>longitudinal or transverse vaginal septum possible</p></li><li><p>consider metroplasty (removing septum &amp; fusing both)</p></li><li><p>can carry pregnancy to full term since each horn is almost a fully developed uterus</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect is this?

  • didelphys uterus → results from complete confusion of both ducts

  • individual horns are fully developed and almost normal in size

  • 2 cervices inevitably present

  • longitudinal or transverse vaginal septum possible

  • consider metroplasty (removing septum & fusing both)

  • can carry pregnancy to full term since each horn is almost a fully developed uterus

class III

New cards
34
<p>What class mullerian defect?</p><ul><li><p><strong>bicornuate uterus</strong> → results from partial confusion of ducts</p></li><li><p>demonstrates some degree of fusion b/t the 2 horns</p></li><li><p>horns not fully developed, typically smaller</p></li><li><p>some pts are candidates for metroplasty</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect?

  • bicornuate uterus → results from partial confusion of ducts

  • demonstrates some degree of fusion b/t the 2 horns

  • horns not fully developed, typically smaller

  • some pts are candidates for metroplasty

class IV

New cards
35
<p>What class mullerian defect?</p><ul><li><p><strong>septate uterus</strong> → results from failure of resorption of septum b/t 2 uterine horns</p></li><li><p>septum can be partial or complete</p></li><li><p>uterine fundus is typically convex but may be flat or slightly concave</p></li><li><p>highest incidence of reproductive complications</p></li><li><p>treated by using transvaginal hysteroscopic resection of septum</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect?

  • septate uterus → results from failure of resorption of septum b/t 2 uterine horns

  • septum can be partial or complete

  • uterine fundus is typically convex but may be flat or slightly concave

  • highest incidence of reproductive complications

  • treated by using transvaginal hysteroscopic resection of septum

class V

New cards
36
<p>What class mullerian defect?</p><ul><li><p><strong>arcuate uterus</strong> → variant of normal, no adverse impact on fertility and pregnancy outcomes</p></li><li><p>has slight midline septum w/ minimal and often broad fundal cavity indentation</p></li><li><p>variously classified as septate, bicornuate, or normal variant</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect?

  • arcuate uterus → variant of normal, no adverse impact on fertility and pregnancy outcomes

  • has slight midline septum w/ minimal and often broad fundal cavity indentation

  • variously classified as septate, bicornuate, or normal variant

class VI

New cards
37
<p>What class mullerian defect?</p><ul><li><p><strong>diethylstilbestrol (DES) related anomaly</strong> → synthetic form of estrogen prescribe to pregnant women to prevent pregnancy complications from 1945-1971</p></li><li><p>seen in female offspring in 15% women exposed to DES during pregnancy</p></li><li><p>variety of abnormal findings- uterine hypoplasia and t shaped uterine cavity; inc risk vaginal clear cell carcinoma</p></li></ul><p></p>

What class mullerian defect?

  • diethylstilbestrol (DES) related anomaly → synthetic form of estrogen prescribe to pregnant women to prevent pregnancy complications from 1945-1971

  • seen in female offspring in 15% women exposed to DES during pregnancy

  • variety of abnormal findings- uterine hypoplasia and t shaped uterine cavity; inc risk vaginal clear cell carcinoma

class VII

New cards
38

When an individual is physiologically capable of reproduction, this is known as _____

puberty

New cards
39

The development of breasts is _____

thelarche

New cards
40

The development of hair in the axilla and on the pubis is _____

pubarche

New cards
41

The first menstrual period is ______

menarche

New cards
42

An increase of adrenal androgens, early in sexual maturation and precursor to puberty, is ______

adrenarche

New cards
43

The stages of physical and sexual development in children, adolescents, and adults based on external primary and secondary sex characteristics is referred to as _____

sexual maturity rating (SMR) - tanner stages

New cards
44

Which Tanner Stage?

  • prepubertal

  • height inc at basal rate; 5-6 cm/yr

  • breast → papilla elevation only

  • pubic hair → villus hair only, no coarse pigmented hair

Tanner Stage 1

New cards
45

Which Tanner Stage?

  • height increases at accelerated rate: 7-8 cm/yr

  • breast → buds palpable and areolae enlarge; ~ age 10.9 (8.9-12.9)

  • pubic hair → minimal coarse pigmented hair mainly on labia; ~ age 11.2 (9-13.4)

  • modifications based on increasingly earlier puberty

    • white: may appear 1 year earlier

    • black: may appear 2 years earlier

Tanner Stage 2

New cards
46

Which Tanner Stage?

  • height increases at peak rate: 8cm/yr (age 12.5)

  • breast → elevation of contour, areolae enlarge; ~ age 11.9 (9.9-13.9)

  • pubic hair → dark, coarse, curly hair spreads over mons pubis; ~ age 11.9 (9.6-14.1)

  • axillary hair develops (13.1)

  • acne vulgaris develops (13.2)

Tanner Stage 3

New cards
47

Which Tanner Stage?

  • height increases 7 cm/yr

  • breast → areolae forms secondary mound on the breast; ~ age 12.9 (10.5-15.3)

  • pubic hair → hair of adult quality, no spread to junction of medial thigh w/ perineum; ~ age 12.6 (10.4-14.8)

Tanner Stage 4

New cards
48

Which Tanner Stage?

  • no further height increases after age 16

  • breast → adult contour, areola recesses to general contour of breast

  • pubic hair → adult distribution of hair, spreads to medial thigh, does not extend up linea alba

Tanner Stage 5

New cards
49

The onset of secondary sexual development before the age of 8 in girls and 9 in boys is referred to as _____

precocious puberty

New cards
50

What are the signs of precocious puberty in girls?

breast development and/or pubic hair→ white before age 7, black before age 6

menarche before age 10

**refer if 2 signs under 8 years old

New cards
51

What might suggest a pathological cause of precocious puberty?

premature puberty in very young children, contrasexual development, peripheral cause (asynchronous development), visual field deficit suggesting pituitary mass

New cards
52

What kind of precocious puberty?

  • caused by early maturation of hypothalamic pituitary-gonadal -axis

  • sequential maturation of breasts and pubic hair in girls, and testicular enlargement and pubic hair in boys

  • sex characteristics appropriate for gender (isosexual)

  • idiopathic in most cases

gonadotropin-dependent (GDPP) / central / true precocious puberty

New cards
53

What kind of precocious puberty?

  • caused by excess secretion of estrogens/androgens (derived from adrenal glands or gonads), exogenous sources of sex steroids, or ectopic production of gonadotropin from GCT

  • may be appropriate for child’s gender (isosexual) or inappropriate (contrasexual)

gonadotropin-independent (GIPP) precocious puberty / peripheral precocity / pseudo-precocious puberty

New cards
54

What kind of precocious puberty?

  • isolated breast development in girls (premature thelarche) or

  • isolated male hormone mediated sex characteristics in boys or girls that result from inc adrenal androgen production (premature adrenarche)

  • can be variant of normal puberty

  • should be monitored bc may progress to precocious puberty

  • tx: GnRH agonists

incomplete precocious puberty

New cards
55

Most cases of premature thelarche are ____

idiopathic and present around age 2 with serum estradiol in prepubertal range

New cards
56

What are the key features of premature thelarche?

  • isolated breast development; either u/l or b/l

  • absence of other secondary sex characteristics

  • normal linear growth & bone age

New cards
57

Premature thelarche occurs in what two peaks?

first 2 years of life & 6-8 years of age

New cards
58

When would a consultation with an endocrinologist be warrnet for premature thelarche?

progressive secondary sexual development, increasing growth velocity, or accelerated bone maturation present

New cards
59

What population is premature adrenarche most common in?

girls (black > white) & individuals w/ obesity and insulin resistance

New cards
60

Premature adrenarche is a risk factor for ______

PCOS

New cards
61

What is the diagnosis of premature adrenarche best supported by?

  • elevated DHEA-sulfate concentration in pubic hair stage

  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone and testosterone levels in age appropriate normal ranges

New cards
62

Initial periods are usually ______

anovulatory (regular ovulation begins ab 1 yr later

New cards
63

The USA average age of menarche (12.5) has _____

decreased

New cards
64

What Is the average blood loss per day in normal menses?

8 or fewer soaked pads / 35-150 ml (usually no more than 2 heavy days)

New cards
65

What is the average loss of iron in normal menses?

13 mg

New cards
66

______ secretes LH and FSH to stimulate ovarian function.

anterior pituitary

New cards
67

Which cycle?

  • follicular phase

  • ovulation

  • luteal phase; pregnancy

ovarian

New cards
68

Which cycle?

  • proliferative phase

  • secretory phse

  • menses

uterine

New cards
69

What is the control center that responds to hormones and neurotransmitters and secretes GnRH every 90 minutes, pulsatile to the anterior pituitary via portal circulation?

hypothalamus

New cards
70

What hormones does the anterior pituitary produce?

FSH & LH → ovary

prolactin → breast

New cards
71

What hormone?

  • produced in gonads, pituitary gland, placenta, etc

  • increases FSH binding and FSH induced aromatization in the ovarian follicle

  • participates in androgen synthesis enhancing LH action in the ovary

activin

New cards
72

Which hormone?

  • inhibits FSH production

  • produced in gonads, pituitary gland, placenta, corpus luteum, etc

  • secretion from the granulose cells of ovarian follicles is stimulated by FSH

  • secretion is diminished by GnRH and enhanced by IGF-1

inhibin

New cards
73

What phase of the ovarian cycle?

  • initiated by lack of estrogen at end of menses

  • FSH from ant pit stimulates follicle to grow & produce estrogen

  • Graafian follicle chose by day 7

  • as estrogen inc, it inhibits release of FSH

  • LH from ant pit in small amounts prior to ovulation, surges mid cycle in response to peak amounts of estrogen from mature follicle, stimulates ovary to produce progesterone after ovulation

  • 10-14 days

follicular / phase I

New cards
74

Which phase of the ovarian cycle?

  • estrogen peaks at 200-300 pg/ml

  • GnRH inhibited by high estrogen & amt of FSH being secreted drops off

  • ant pit releases LH surge ahead of ovulation

  • one egg released 36-42 hours from onset of surge

  • corpus luteum formed at site of follicle that hs matured and released ovum

    • secretes progesterone to ready uterus for pregnancy

    • if not fertilized, becomes inactive after 10-14 days, involutes and becomes corpus albicans (fibrous scar tissue) and menstruation occurs

ovulatory / phase II

New cards
75

what phase of the ovarian cycle?

  • progesterone dominant (secreted by corpus luteum)

  • relatively constant in length (12-14 days)

  • progesterone increases and peaks (day 20 of the cycle - 6 days post ovulation)

  • estrogen levels off

  • corpus luteum involutes after 14 days, resulting in drop of progesterone levels

    • if implantation, progesterone levels stay up due to production of hCG, progesterone would then further inhibit FSH and new follicular recruitment

luteal / phase III

New cards
76

What phase of the uterine cycle?

  • roughly corresponds with follicular phase of ovarian cycle

  • influenced by estrogen

  • thickness of endometrium rapidly increases by the drawing out of the uterine glands

  • dont consulte or secrete in this phase

proliferative phase

New cards
77

What phase of the uterine cycle?

  • roughly corresponds with luteal phase of ovarian cycle

  • progesterone influence from corpus luteum

  • lining becomes highly vascularized, slightly edematous, glands become coiled and tortuous and begin to secrete clear fluid

secretory phase

New cards
78

corpus luteum involutes,

progesterone & estrogen fall rapidly causing endometrium to become unstable, prostaglandin increase in myometrium & smooth muscle begins to contract

arterioles constrict and regress

endometrium loses its blood supply and sloughs its functional layer

menstruation

New cards
79

The stage of a woman’s reproductive life that begins up to 10 years before menopause (~40s) when the ovaries gradually begin to produce less estrogen in known as _____

perimenopause

New cards
80

What is the average length of perimenopause?

4 years; ends after 12 consecutive months w/p a menstrual cycle (menopause)

New cards
81

what are signs and symptoms of perimenopause?

  • change in periods - shorter or longer, lighter or heavier, more/less time in between

  • hot flashes, night sweats

  • trouble sleeping

  • vaginal dryness

  • mood swings

  • trouble focusing

  • less hair on head, more on face and breasts

New cards
82

What marks the permanent end of fertility with reduced functionaling of the ovaries, confirmed with the absence of menses for 12 consecutive months?

menopause

New cards
83

what is the average age of menopause in the US?

52

New cards
84

T/F: ovulation can still sporadically occur during menopause.

true

New cards
85

What condition might happen during menopause due to the increased loss of estrogen?

osteoporosis

New cards
86

what is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

pregnancy

New cards
87

what type of amenorrhea?

  • never menstruated

  • eti: gonadal failure, congenital absence of vagina, constitutional delay

primary

New cards
88

What kind of amenorrhea?

  • menstruated by failed to menstruate again for more than 3 cycles or w/in 6 mos

  • eti: chronic anovulation, hypothyroidism/hyperprolactinemia, wt loss/anorexia

secondary

New cards
89

when should a work up be initiated for amenorrhea?

  • no period by age 14 w/ absent secondary sex characteristics

  • no period by a ge 16 regardless of secondary sex characteristics

  • in menstruating women w/o menses for 6 mos

  • obvious cases- turners appearance, genital anomalies, etc

New cards
90

What is the treatment for amenorrhea?

must treat to avoid prolonged uterine exposure to unopposed estrogen or anovulation if fertility desired

OC’s are good for younger pts; otherwise regular progesterone withdrawal

ovulation induction for desired conception

HRT or OC’s if perimenopausal

New cards
91

What is the most common Ullrich turner syndrome?

chromosomal monosomy X (45XO)

New cards
92

What are symptoms of Ullrich turner syndrome?

  • characteristic physical abnormalities → short stature, lymphedema, broad chest, low hairline, low set ears, webbed neck

  • gonadal dysfunction (amenorrhea & infertility)

  • CHD, hypothyroidism, ophthalmologic problems, etc

New cards
93

Severe uterine pain/cramps during menstruation that are severe enough to limit normal activities or require medication is known as _____

dysmenorrhea

New cards
94

Excessively heavy blood loss is known as ____

menorrhagia

New cards
95

what is the treatment for primary dysmenorrhea?

  • OCPs- suppress ovulation, lighter/regular flow

  • NSAIDS- ibuprofen, mefenamic acid, naproxen sodium

  • low level topical heat

New cards
96

When ectopic tissue similar to the lining of the uterus is found elsewhere in the body, this is _____

endometriosis

New cards
97

What is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

pelvic pain

New cards
98

What age is endometriosis seen in?

typically 25-40, can be as young as 18

New cards
99

what is the pathophysiology of endometriosis?

  • ectopic endometrial tissue

  • unknown; “retrograde menstruation” reflux

  • extra-pelvic sites- lymphatic or vascular mets

New cards
100

What are risk factors for endometriosis?

  • cycles < 27 days

  • flow ≥ 8 days

  • uninterrupted menstruation > 15-20 yrs

  • nulliparity

  • fhx

New cards
robot