Extra Credit microbio questions

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91 Terms

1
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Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.

ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.

Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.

A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

2
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Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes?

circular chromosome

ATP-generating mechanism

binary fission

cell wall

70S ribosomes

cell wall

3
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Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures?

phase-contrast microscope

darkfield microscope

compound light microscope

fluorescence microscope

electron microscope

phase-contrast microscope

4
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

iodine – mordant

safranin – acid dye

carbolfuchsin – basic dye

crystal violet – basic dye

alcohol-acetone - decolorizer

safranin – acid dye

5
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A ________ can be used to view the internal structures of cells in its native state?

scanning acoustic microscope

fluorescence microscope

phase-contrast microscope

compound light microscope

electron microscope

phase-contrast microscope

6
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<p><span>Which drawing in the figure is streptococci?</span></p>

Which drawing in the figure is streptococci?

D

7
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________ allows a cell transport of substances from a lower to a higher concentration area.

Extracellular enzymes

Simple diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Aquaporins

Active transport

8
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An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all the following except:

Feedback inhibition

Noncompetitive inhibition

Allosteric inhibition

Competitive inhibition

Competitive inhibition

9
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Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE?

They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.

They are sensitive to penicillin.

They are toxic to humans.

They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.

Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.

They are sensitive to penicillin.

10
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<p><span>Which of the graphs in the figure best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?</span></p>

Which of the graphs in the figure best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

C

11
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Which of the following statements is incorrect about prokaryotic cells?

They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.

Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.

They reproduce by binary fission.

They typically have a circular chromosome.

They lack a plasma membrane.

They lack a plasma membrane.

12
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Cyanobacteria are a type of

chemoautotroph.

chemoheterotroph.

photoautotroph.

photoheterotroph.

photoautotroph.

13
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<p><span>Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in the figure?</span></p><table style="min-width: 25px"><colgroup><col style="min-width: 25px"></colgroup><tbody><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>NADH</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>NAD<sup>+</sup></p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD<sup>+</sup></p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>NADH and isocitric acid</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid</p></td></tr></tbody></table><p></p>

Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in the figure?

NADH

NAD+

α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+

NADH and isocitric acid

isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid

NAD+

14
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In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, excited electrons ultimately ________.

flow through ATP synthase

are used to form water

combine with hydrogen ions and NADP+ to produce NADPH

generate light within the spectrum of green wavelengths

return to chlorophyll

combine with hydrogen ions and NADP+ to produce NADPH

15
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Which two staining techniques employ a mordant?

Gram stain and flagella stain

Gram stain and acid-fast stain

Simple stain and acid-fast stain

Capsule stain and flagella stain

Gram stain and capsule stain

Gram stain and flagella stain

16
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Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?
1. Anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate.
2. They are shared metabolic pathways.
3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions.
4. Both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously.

2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1 only

1, 2, 3

2, 4

1, 2, 3

17
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<p><span>In the figure, where is ATP produced?</span></p>

In the figure, where is ATP produced?

E

18
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Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and CO2 gas would most likely be categorized as ________.

homolactic fermenters

aerobic respirers

anaerobic respirers

heterolactic fermenters

alcohol fermenters

alcohol fermenters

19
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A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm?

0.1 μm

1 μm

0.001 μm

0.01 μm

10 μm

0.1 μm

20
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Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?

chemoautotroph

chemoheterotroph

photoautotroph

photoheterotroph

chemoheterotroph

21
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Which of the following statements about anaerobic cellular respiration is not true?

The complete Krebs cycle is utilized.

It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.

It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.

It requires cytochromes.

It generates ATP.

It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.

22
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Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is not possible?

ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.

ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.

Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.

Anabolic reactions are degradative.

Anabolic reactions are degradative.

23
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Which of the following structures is not a functionally analogous pair?

Nucleus — nucleoid region

9+2 flagella — bacterial flagella

Chloroplasts — thylakoids

Mitochondria — prokaryotic plasma membrane

Cilia — pili

Cilia — pili

24
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The functions of the glycocalyx in bacteria include all of the following except:

Protection against dehydration

Source of nutrition

Increased virulence

Biofilm formation

Binary fission

Binary fission

25
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Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

ethylene oxide

dry heat

autoclave

pasteurization

supercritical fluids

pasteurization

26
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Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?

rRNA

a new strand of DNA

mRNA

tRNA

a new strand of DNA

27
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During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

stationary phase

death phase

lag phase

log phase

The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

log phase

28
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The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

mRNA → cDNA.

DNA → mRNA.

tRNA → mRNA.

mRNA → protein.

DNA → DNA.

mRNA → cDNA.

29
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<p><span>In the figure, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O</span><sub>2</sub><span>?</span></p>

In the figure, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?

b

30
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If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells'

proteins.

phospholipids.

DNA and proteins.

DNA.

DNA and phospholipids.

DNA and proteins.

31
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A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Bacillus thuringiensis.

Pseudomonas.

Thermus aquaticus.

Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Thermus aquaticus.

32
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Which enzyme catalyzes the biochemical reaction: 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2?

Catalase

Oxidase

Peroxidase

Superoxide dismutase

Catalase

33
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Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

germicide – kills microbes

bacteriostatic – kills vegetative bacterial cells

sterilant – destroys all living microorganisms

fungicide – kills yeasts and molds

virucide – inactivates viruses

bacteriostatic – kills vegetative bacterial cells

34
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A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a ________ medium.

chemically defined

selective

complex

differential

reducing

complex

35
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A gene is ________.

a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product

any random segment of DNA

a three-nucleotide segment of DNA that code for an amino acid

a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product

the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA

a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product

36
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Which of the following statements best describes the pattern of microbial death?

The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.

The pattern varies depending on the species.

All the cells in a culture die at once.

Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.

The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

37
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Which of the following statements is not true regarding a bacterium that is R+?

R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species.

It possesses a plasmid.

It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals.

R+ can be transferred to a different species.

It is F+.

It is F+.

38
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The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is

BSL-1.

BSL-2.

BSL-3.

BSL-4.

BSL-1.

39
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The fact that people continue to be concerned about the safety of DNA technology can be attributed to which of the following?

People are suspicious of science, in general.

It is impossible to prove something is safe under all conceivable conditions.

Both that it is impossible to prove something is safe under all conditions and that science can only provide supporting evidence for hypotheses.

There is mounting scientific evidence that DNA technology is unsafe.

Science can definitively disprove hypotheses but can only provide supporting evidence for hypotheses.

Both that it is impossible to prove something is safe under all conditions and that science can only provide supporting evidence for hypotheses.

40
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Most fungi grow best at pH

5.

7.

1.

14.

9.

5

41
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<p><span>In the figure, which model of the </span><em>lac</em><span> operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?</span></p>

In the figure, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?

d

42
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A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains. What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?

isopropanol

spray a disinfectant that contains a heavy metal

10% bleach

chlorhexidine containing solution

warm soapy scrub

warm soapy scrub

43
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<p><span>A suspension of 10</span><sup>6</sup><span> </span><em>Bacillus cereus </em><span>endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.</span><br><br><br><span>In the figure, the thermal death point for this culture is</span></p><table style="min-width: 25px"><colgroup><col style="min-width: 25px"></colgroup><tbody><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>170°C.</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>50°C.</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>15 minutes.</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>30 minutes.</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided</p></td></tr></tbody></table><p></p>

A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.


In the figure, the thermal death point for this culture is

170°C.

50°C.

15 minutes.

30 minutes.

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided

44
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<p><span>The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hours, then transferring one loopful to nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; - = no growth)</span></p><p><span>In the table, which disinfectant was bactericidal?</span></p><table style="min-width: 25px"><colgroup><col style="min-width: 25px"></colgroup><tbody><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>Doom</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>K.O.</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>Mortum</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>Sterl</p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="1" rowspan="1" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0.3em; position: relative;"><p>The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.</p></td></tr></tbody></table><p></p>

The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hours, then transferring one loopful to nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; - = no growth)

In the table, which disinfectant was bactericidal?

Doom

K.O.

Mortum

Sterl

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Mortum

45
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Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+
Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-

In the table, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?

1 will become F+, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+

1 will remain the same; recombination may occur in 2

1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+

They will both remain the same.

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

1 will remain the same; recombination may occur in 2

46
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An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it ________.

contains selectable markers

is easy to isolate

does not contain exons

can form very large DNA fragment

does not contain introns

does not contain introns

47
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Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures?

self-replication

may replicate in several species

circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome

has a selectable marker

large size

large size

48
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One advantage of a viral vector over a plasmid vector is that the

viral vector can harbor a selection marker.

viral vector can accept much larger pieces of DNA.

plasmid vector is circular.

the viral vector can accept larger pieces of DNA and the plasmid vector is circular.

viral vector can accept a PCR fragment.

viral vector can accept much larger pieces of DNA.

49
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If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?

boiling for one hour

oven at 121°C for one hour

bleach

hydrogen peroxide

pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes

pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes

50
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All of the following methods are effective for destroying prions except:

Proteases

Incineration

Boiling

NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C

None of the answers are correct; each of these will destroy prions

Boiling

51
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Repair of damaged DNA, in some instances and mechanisms, might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and

methylase.

DNA polymerase.

helicase.

primase.

DNA ligase.

methylase.

52
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Which of the following is not an agricultural product made by recombinant DNA technology?

Nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)

Glyphosate-resistant crops

Frost retardant

Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide

Pectinase

Pectinase

53
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Microorganisms placed in a high concentration of salt and sugar environment will undergo osmotic lysis.

True

False

False

54
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According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible gene to occur, the ________.

protein repressor must not be synthesized

substrate must bind to the enzyme

protein repressor must bind to the operator

substrate must bind to the protein repressor

end-product must not be in excess

substrate must bind to the enzyme

55
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Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

microwaves

sunlight

autoclave

gamma radiation

ultraviolet radiation

gamma radiation

56
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A population of bacterial cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a ________.

Southern blot

PCR

library

vector

clone

clone

57
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An experiment began with 4 bacterial cells in log phase and ended with 128 cells. How many times the cells divided?

64

6

4

32

5

5

58
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If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy?

the tertiary structure of the protein

the quaternary structure of the protein

the primary structure of the protein

the secondary structure of the protein

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

the primary structure of the protein

59
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Often, patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because:

Infections can be transmitted from other people.

Biofilms develop on catheters.

Bacteria cause infections.

Injected solutions are contaminated.

Their immune systems are weakened.

Biofilms develop on catheters.

60
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A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A 1 ml sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 serial dilutions. 1ml of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained ________ cells per milliliter.

540

540,000

54,000

54

5,400

54,000

61
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You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)

cellular slime mold.

tapeworm.

ascomycete.

Euglenozoa.

plasmodial slime mold.

cellular slime mold

62
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A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is

a sensitivity to antibiotics.

they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.

the ability to pass through 0.22 micrometer pore filters.

an ability to infect more than one type of host.

may contain an RNA genome.

may contain an RNA genome.

63
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?

helical shape

possess an axial filament

gram-negative

easily observed with brightfield microscopy

found in the human oral cavity

easily observed with brightfield microscopy

64
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Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used in ________.

DNA fingerprinting

serological identification methods

DNA sequencing reactions

bacterial identification

bacterial identification

65
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1.

9+2 flagella

2.

Nucleus

3.

Plasma membrane

4.

Peptidoglycan

5.

Mitochondrion

6.

Fimbriae



In the table, which features are found in nearly all members of the Domain Eukarya?

1, 4, 6

2, 3, 5

1, 2, 5

3, 5

2, 3

2, 3, 5

66
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Bacteriophages and animal viruses do not differ significantly in which one of the following processes?

Biosynthesis

Release

Uncoating

Attachment

Penetration

Biosynthesis

67
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This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms.

The figure illustrates the results of gel electrophoresis showing the separation of restriction fragments of D N A of different organisms labeled 1 through 6.



In the figure, which two organisms are most closely related?

4 and 5

2 and 4

1 and 3

2 and 5

3 and 5

1 and 3

68
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Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes

are chemoheterotrophs.

lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.

cause disease.

require light.

are decomposers.

lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.

69
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You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong?

deltaproteobacteria

phototrophic bacteria

gammaproteobacteria

bacillales

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

bacillales

70
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A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species

breeds with its own species.

does not breed with other species.

has a limited geographical distribution.

is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

can be distinguished from other bacterial species.

is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

71
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Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscopic examination because of their ________.

endospore formation

Gram stain reaction

cell arrangement

cell shape

acid-fast reaction

cell arrangement

72
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Which of the following pairs are mismatched?

Actinomycetes — reproduce by fragmentation

Archaea — extremophiles

Cytophaga — a gliding, nonfruiting bacterium

Chemoautotrophic bacteria — fix atmospheric nitrogen

Dissimilatory sulfate-reducing bacteria — produce H2S

Chemoautotrophic bacteria — fix atmospheric nitrogen

73
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What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

different virus subtypes

ease of virus transmission

a segmented genome

attachment spikes

worldwide distribution of the virus

a segmented genome

74
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In a direct ELISA test for COVID-19, the method is determining if ________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it.

SARS-CoV-2 or an antigen from the virus

a bacteriophage that can infect a particular bacterial strain

a known sequence of DNA from a pathogen

antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 found in a patient's blood

SARS-CoV-2 or an antigen from the virus

75
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A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasitic cycle?

Miracidium

Adult

Larva

Cyst

All of the answers are correct.

Adult

76
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Zygomycota – sporangiospores

Ascomycota – conidiospores

anamorphs – lack spores

microsporidia – lack mitochondria

Basidiomycota – basidiospores

anamorphs – lack spores

77
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Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)

zygomycete fungus.

oomycote alga.

green alga.

ascomycete fungus.

tapeworm.

oomycote alga.

78
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Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?

lysozyme

DNA polymerase

RNA

DNA

PrPSc

PrPSc

79
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The application of phage typing is based on the fact that ________.

bacteria are destroyed by viruses

viruses cause disease

bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species

Staphylococcus causes infections

phages and bacteria are related

bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species

80
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What is not true regarding viruses that infect plants?

They are morphologically similar to animal viruses.

They must enter through a wound or be introduced by an inset feeding.

They can sometimes be cultured in insect cells.

They can spread via pollination.

They are often cultured in embryonated chicken eggs.

They are often cultured in embryonated chicken eggs.

81
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The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

abduction.

lysogeny.

transduction.

budding.

penetration.

budding

82
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Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?

Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.

Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.

Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.

The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.

Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan

83
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Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?

mosquitoes

houseflies

lice

kissing bugs

fleas

houseflies

84
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Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is false?

They are composed of eukaryotic cells.

They synthesize organic molecules.

They use organic carbon sources for their metabolism.

They are photosynthetic.

They are multicellular.

They use organic carbon sources for their metabolism.

85
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If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the

definitive host.

infected host.

reservoir.

intermediate host.

None of the answers is correct.

intermediate host

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Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

laboratory animals

culture media

animal cell cultures

embryonated eggs

bacterial cultures

culture media

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Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

treating patients

vaccination

eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

eliminate the intermediate host

None of these is an effective control.

eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

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The genus of bacteria that are particularly problematic in hospital settings due to their ability to grow in solutions with minute traces of unusual carbon sources is

Staphylococcus.

Pseudomonas.

Vibrio.

Campylobacter.

Legionella.

Pseudomonas

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The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers was provided by

cancer that developed in chickens following injection of cell-free filtrates.

the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.

treating cancer with antibodies.

some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.

finding oncogenes in viruses.

cancer that developed in chickens following injection of cell-free filtrates.

90
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Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?

Protista

Animalia

Fungi

Bacteria

Plantae

Bacteria

91
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Which of the following best describes the bacterial group found primarily in the intestines of humans?

Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci

Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

Gram-positive cocci

Endospore-forming rods

Aerobic, helical bacteria

Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods