EMR Reviewer Flashcards

Question-and-Answer style flashcards covering key acronyms, legal concepts, equipment, vital signs, treatment protocols, anatomy, and ICS principles from the EMR reviewer notes.

What does the acronym EMS stand for?

Emergency Medical Service

What does EMR stand for in emergency care?

Emergency Medical Response/Responder

What does a DNR order instruct providers to do?

Do Not Resuscitate

In bleeding control, what does CCCC remind responders to do?

Cover the wound, Control bleeding, Care for shock, Consult Medical Doctor

What does the mnemonic PRICES stand for and when is it applied?

Protect, Rest, Ice application, Comfort bandage, Elevate, Splint/Immobilization; used for soft-tissue injuries such as sprains

During the primary survey, what does DRSCAB represent?

Danger, Response, Shout for help, Circulation, Airway, Breathing

What levels of responsiveness are listed in AVPU?

Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive

Expand the trauma assessment acronym DCAP-BTLS.

Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling

In scene size-up, what does MOI stand for?

Mechanism of Injuries

What does NOI mean during patient assessment?

Nature of Illness

What body fluid is abbreviated as CSF?

Cerebrospinal Fluid

What does the SAMPLE history mnemonic stand for?

Signs & Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading to injury

Break down the pain assessment mnemonic OPQRST.

Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time

Which stroke-recognition mnemonic is BEFAST and what does it stand for?

Balance, Eyes, Face, Arms, Speech, Time

When checking pupils, what does PEARL/PEARRL mean?

Pupils Equal (and) Round, Reactive to Light

During a distal pulse check, what does PMSC signify?

Pulse, Motor, Sensory, Capillary refill

Name the four main legal issues often encountered in EMS.

Negligence, Abandonment, Battery and Assault, Breach of confidentiality

List the four types of patient consent recognized in EMS.

Expressed consent, Implied consent, Minor consent, Mental (incompetent) consent

Give three common pieces of personal protective equipment (PPE) used by responders.

Gloves, Surgical mask, Eye goggles

Identify the four major parts of an oxygen regulator.

Pressure gauge, Flowmeter, Humidifier, Oxygen port

What are the two basic types of portable oxygen tanks?

Pin type and Valve type

Name the three common airway adjuncts carried by EMRs.

Oropharyngeal airway (OPA), Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA), Suction

State the flow rate and oxygen percentage for a nasal cannula.

1–6 LPM delivering 24–44 % oxygen, used for medical patients

State the flow rate and oxygen percentage for a non-rebreather mask.

10–15 LPM delivering up to 90 % oxygen, used for trauma patients

State the flow rate and oxygen percentage for a bag-valve mask (BVM).

15 LPM or more delivering 90–100 % oxygen, used for respiratory failure

List the four basic types of musculoskeletal injuries.

Fracture, Dislocation, Sprain, Strain

Name the ten wound types an EMR should recognize.

Abrasion, Laceration, Incision, Avulsion, Puncture, Amputation, Contusion, Penetration, Crushing injury, Evisceration

Identify the four burn degrees.

Superficial (1st), Partial thickness (2nd), Full thickness (3rd), Deep full thickness (4th)

What mnemonic guides the care of a sprain?

PRICES (Protect, Rest, Ice, Comfort bandage, Elevate, Splint)

How should an evisceration be managed in the field?

Cover protruding organs with a moist sterile dressing and keep them warm

What is the preferred bleeding-control method for a gunshot wound?

Direct pressure and, if necessary, application of a tourniquet

How do you manage a penetrating eye injury on scene?

Stabilize the embedded object and cover the injured eye

What care is recommended for a suspected pelvic fracture?

Apply a pelvic binder (or sheet), minimize movement, and transport

During a seizure, should the patient be restrained?

No—protect the head and allow the seizure to run its course

How can an EMR assist a patient experiencing an asthma attack?

Help the patient use a prescribed inhaler and provide supplemental oxygen

What is the immediate priority when treating a myocardial infarction patient?

Rapid transport to definitive care (ASA/ALS) as soon as possible

How is hypoglycemia treated in a conscious patient?

Administer oral glucose or another fast source of sugar

List the five standard patient positions.

Supine, Prone, Fowler, Trendelenburg, Lateral recumbent

Which organs are located in the right upper abdominal quadrant (RUQ)?

Liver and gallbladder

Which organs are found in the left upper quadrant (LUQ)?

Stomach and spleen

Name two structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ).

Appendix and urethra

Which structures are located in the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?

Small intestine and colon

Where is the dorsalis pedis pulse palpated?

On the top (dorsum) of the foot

What word describes an erection caused by spinal trauma?

Priapism

Name the four chambers of the human heart.

Right atrium, Right ventricle, Left atrium, Left ventricle

What two maneuvers are used to open the airway?

Head-tilt, chin-lift and Jaw-thrust maneuver

Give four definitive signs of death.

Rigor mortis, Decomposition, Decapitation, Lividity

State the normal adult respiratory rate (RR).

12–20 breaths per minute

What blood pressure is generally considered normal for an adult?

Approximately 120/80 mm Hg

Below what oxygen saturation (SpO₂) reading is cause for concern?

Readings below 94 %

What capillary refill time is considered normal in adults?

Less than 2 seconds

When assessing PERRLA, what should normal pupils be?

Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

Identify the two primary types of stroke.

Ischemic and Hemorrhagic

In OPQRST, which letter is most important for myocardial infarction assessment?

R – Radiation of pain

Where do you inspect for tracheal deviation?

Midline of the neck just above the sternum

Differentiate a fracture from a dislocation.

Fracture involves broken bone ends; dislocation involves bones forced out of a joint

Which triage color tag denotes critical (immediate) patients?

Red

Which triage color tag is assigned to walking wounded patients?

Green

List the four main functional divisions of the Incident Command System (ICS).

Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance

What condition signifies a mass-casualty incident (MCI)?

An incident involving countless (very large number of) patients

What is the role of the Liaison Officer within ICS?

To coordinate with outside agencies and organizations

What is the responsibility of the Public Information Officer (PIO)?

To relay information to the media and the public

What does the Safety Officer ensure during an incident?

Responder and scene safety

Explain the basic pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus.

The body cannot properly regulate blood glucose due to absent insulin (Type 1) or insulin resistance (Type 2), leading to hyperglycemia and cellular damage

What is Cushing reflex and what does it indicate?

A triad of increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and irregular respirations indicating rising intracranial pressure

According to the golden rule of splinting, what must be immobilized?

The injured area and the joints above and below the injury