Comprehensive Overview of Eating, Schizophrenia, Dissociative, and Substance Use Disorders

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103 Terms

1
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What are eating disorders?

A category of partially overlapping syndromes marked by eating dysregulation, including anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder.

2
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What characterizes anorexia nervosa (AN)?

Inability to maintain a normal healthy body weight, distorted body image, and unhealthy weight-loss behaviors.

3
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What are the three diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?

1) Disturbance in body weight or shape experience, 2) Undue influence of body weight on self-evaluation, 3) Lack of recognition of the seriousness of low body weight.

4
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What are the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa?

Restricting subtype and binge-eating/purging subtype.

5
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What defines bulimia nervosa (BN)?

Recurrent binge eating episodes with a sense of loss of control, followed by compensatory behaviors.

6
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What are common compensatory behaviors in bulimia nervosa?

Self-induced vomiting, laxative use, diuretic misuse, fasting, and excessive exercise.

7
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What is the BMI requirement for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?

A BMI greater than 18.5 kg/m².

8
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What characterizes binge eating disorder (BED)?

Recurrent binge eating without regular compensatory behaviors, occurring at least weekly for 3 months.

9
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What are some criteria for binge eating disorder?

Eating rapidly, eating until uncomfortably full, eating large amounts when not hungry, eating alone due to embarrassment, feeling disgusted or guilty afterward.

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What does OSFED stand for?

Other Specified Feeding/Eating Disorders, applying to presentations that do not meet full criteria for any eating disorder.

11
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What is a culture-bound syndrome?

A collection of signs and symptoms restricted to a limited number of cultures due to psychosocial features.

12
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What is the main finding of Keel & Klump (2003) regarding AN and BN?

Bulimia nervosa is a culture-bound syndrome, while anorexia nervosa is not.

13
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What historical evidence supports the existence of anorexia nervosa?

Self-starvation behaviors have been documented for centuries, predating modern dieting culture.

14
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What is the role of culture in the expression of eating disorders?

Cultural context shapes the expression of disorders, influencing how symptoms manifest and are diagnosed.

15
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Why are eating disorders often underdiagnosed in minorities?

ED criteria were developed using white middle-class women, leading to misdiagnosis in individuals from other backgrounds.

16
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What are the eating disorder rates among African Americans?

Lowest rates of anorexia nervosa; binge eating and bulimia nervosa are present but often linked to stress rather than thin ideals.

17
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What specific risk factors are associated with binge eating disorder in African American women?

Childhood sexual abuse is linked to binge eating disorder.

18
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What treatment works best overall for eating disorders?

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).

19
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What is the significance of cultural adaptations in treatment?

Cultural adaptations, such as family involvement and language considerations, can increase treatment effectiveness.

20
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What are the obesity rates among minority groups in the U.S.?

Hispanic children have the highest childhood obesity rates, followed by Black and White children.

21
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What individual-level contributors affect obesity in minority groups?

Dietary habits, physical activity levels, and biological differences.

22
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How does the community environment contribute to obesity in minority populations?

Food deserts and limited access to healthy food options increase obesity risk.

23
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What is the impact of acculturative stress on eating disorders?

Acculturative stress is a strong predictor of bulimia nervosa and binge eating.

24
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What are the main characteristics of schizophrenia?

Impairments in social functioning, difficulties in maintaining relationships, and problems with self-care.

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What is a necessary criterion for diagnosing schizophrenia?

Problems in daily living without significant impairment in intellectual functioning.

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What are the three major dimensions of schizophrenia?

Positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and cognitive impairments.

27
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What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

Thoughts, sensory experiences, and behaviors that are present in persons with the disorder but absent in those without it, such as hallucinations and delusions.

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What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

The absence or reduction of normal cognitive functions, feelings, or behaviors, including blunted affect and poverty of speech.

29
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What cognitive impairments are associated with schizophrenia?

Problems with attention, memory, and problem-solving skills.

30
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What is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

Presence of two or more symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, negative symptoms) for at least a month, with continuous disturbance for at least 6 months.

31
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What is the significance of delusions in schizophrenia diagnosis?

One of the symptoms must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.

32
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How does urbanicity affect schizophrenia prevalence?

Schizophrenia is more concentrated in urban areas, suggesting environmental stressors may play a role.

33
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What is the social drift hypothesis?

The idea that the debilitating effects of schizophrenia lead to a decrease in socioeconomic status and increased poverty.

34
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What is the diathesis-stress model in relation to schizophrenia?

It combines genetic vulnerability with environmental stressors to explain the onset of schizophrenia.

<p>It combines genetic vulnerability with environmental stressors to explain the onset of schizophrenia.</p>
35
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What prenatal factors may contribute to schizophrenia risk?

Oxygen deprivation, malnutrition, or infections during pregnancy.

36
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What are some biological factors linked to schizophrenia?

Alterations in brain structure, dopaminergic complications, and obstetric complications.

37
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What is the dopamine hypothesis in schizophrenia?

It suggests that alterations in dopamine levels are responsible for the symptoms of schizophrenia.

38
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What is the prodromal phase of schizophrenia?

A period characterized by subclinical symptoms such as mild paranoia and social withdrawal before full-blown psychosis.

39
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What are common treatments for schizophrenia?

Antipsychotic medications, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), psychoeducation, and social skills training.

40
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What is the role of antipsychotic medication in treating schizophrenia?

It targets dopamine systems and is effective for positive symptoms but less so for negative symptoms.

41
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What are the outcomes for individuals with schizophrenia receiving treatment?

Many can live independently with proper treatment, while untreated symptoms may worsen.

42
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What are biomarkers in the context of schizophrenia?

Measurable biological indicators that relate to disease presence, risk, or treatment response.

43
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Why is it difficult to identify biomarkers for schizophrenia?

Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous syndrome with overlapping symptoms and varying biological pathways.

44
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What types of biomarkers are being studied for schizophrenia?

Genetic markers, neuroimaging markers, neurophysiological markers, and inflammatory or hormonal markers.

45
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What are the ethical implications of using biomarkers in schizophrenia diagnosis?

They could lead to premature labeling and discrimination, necessitating careful consideration before clinical use.

46
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What is the impact of trauma and PTSD on schizophrenia?

They can worsen the course of schizophrenia and exacerbate symptoms.

47
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What is the significance of early detection in schizophrenia?

Early treatment can improve outcomes and may prevent the progression of the disorder.

48
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What are the traditional subtypes of schizophrenia?

Paranoid, Disorganized, Catatonic, Undifferentiated, and Residual.

49
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How does schizophrenia manifest in terms of brain development?

It is seen as a neurodevelopmental disorder, with changes occurring long before symptoms appear.

50
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What is the relationship between substance use and schizophrenia?

Substances like cannabis and alcohol can trigger psychosis in individuals with genetic vulnerability.

<p>Substances like cannabis and alcohol can trigger psychosis in individuals with genetic vulnerability.</p>
51
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What is the main takeaway regarding schizophrenia?

It is a multifactorial disorder influenced by genetic, environmental, and developmental factors, and can be managed with early detection and integrated treatment.

52
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What are dissociative disorders characterized by?

A disruption of and/or discontinuity in the normal integration of consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behavior.

53
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What common feature do dissociative disorders share?

They are frequently manifested in the wake of trauma and are influenced by their proximity to trauma.

54
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What is the estimated genetic influence on dissociative disorders?

Approximately 50%.

55
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What is Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) formerly known as?

Multiple Personality Disorder.

56
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What characterizes Dissociative Identity Disorder?

A disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality states and recurrent gaps in the recall of everyday events, personal information, and/or traumatic events.

57
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What are the two distinct forms of dissociation proposed?

Detachment (including depersonalization and derealization) and Compartmentalization (including dissociative amnesia).

58
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What is dissociative fugue defined as in DSM-5?

Apparently purposeful travel or bewildered wandering associated with amnesia for identity or other important autobiographical information.

59
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What is the post-traumatic model of DID?

It posits that DID arises primarily from a history of severe physical and/or sexual abuse in childhood.

<p>It posits that DID arises primarily from a history of severe physical and/or sexual abuse in childhood.</p>
60
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What does the sociocognitive model argue regarding dissociative disorders?

It suggests that fantasy-proneness, media influences, suggestibility, and cognitive failures contribute to self-reports and diagnosis of dissociative disorders.

61
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What is the criticism of the trauma model (TM) of dissociation?

Correlations between highly aversive events and dissociation are highly variable, and many dissociative patients report no aversive events.

62
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What is the definition of Alcohol Use Disorder?

A problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to significant impairment or distress as manifested by at least two specific criteria.

63
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What are some criteria for diagnosing Alcohol Use Disorder?

Using alcohol in larger amounts than intended, persistent desire to cut back, significant time spent on alcohol-related activities, cravings, and failure to fulfill obligations.

64
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What does the disease concept of alcohol addiction suggest?

It views alcohol addiction as a medical disorder, which became dominant in the US in the mid-1900s.

65
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What is ambivalence in the context of alcohol use disorder?

A focus point of the clinical picture where individuals are not very compelled to change their drinking habits, often leading to denial.

66
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What is the continuum conceptualization of alcohol use problems?

It ranges from risky drinkers or 'misusers' to moderate or severely dependent individuals.

67
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What is a common outcome of highly aversive events and negative emotions?

They can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle and predispose individuals to dissociative symptoms.

68
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What role does hyperassociativity play in dissociative disorders?

It fuels 'set-switching' particularly in the presence of low levels of meta-consciousness and high levels of negative affect.

69
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What is the significance of the case of Sybil in the context of DID?

It is a controversial case that raised questions about the validity of multiple personalities and the influence of suggestive therapy.

70
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What is the relationship between dissociation and sleep?

Poor sleep can trigger negative emotions and thoughts of aversive events, leading to dissociation.

71
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What is the impact of emotional dysregulation on dissociative symptoms?

Emotional dysregulation predicts dissociative symptoms.

72
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What are the two types of dissociation mentioned?

Depersonalization and derealization, which are part of the detachment form.

73
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What is the role of suggestibility in the diagnosis of dissociative disorders?

It can contribute to self-reports and the diagnosis of dissociative disorders.

74
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What is the criticism of the sociocognitive model (SCM)?

It may overlook the role of trauma in dissociation, despite suggesting that media and cognitive factors influence self-reports.

75
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What is the significance of the overlap between BPD, schizophrenia spectrum disorders, and dissociative disorders?

It suggests common variables that contribute to these disorders.

76
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What organization proclaimed alcoholism as a disease?

The American Medical Association

77
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What was the intended effect of embracing the disease concept of alcoholism?

To shift responsibility from the criminal justice system to the health care system and destigmatize alcohol addiction.

78
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How does Alcoholics Anonymous view alcoholism?

As a biological aberration (an allergy to alcohol) and a progressive disorder.

79
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What percentage of risk for alcoholism is attributed to genetics?

About 50%.

80
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What does current research suggest about alcoholism as a progressive disorder?

It is not progressive; it includes periods of varying severity of alcohol problems.

81
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What factors are associated with continued drinking behavior?

Conditioned cues and positive consequences rather than physical dependence.

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What does the DSM-5 say about alcohol use disorders?

It eliminates the distinction between alcohol dependence and alcohol abuse, viewing them as varying in severity.

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What are the two key determinations in diagnosing alcohol use disorders?

(a) Severity of the problem and (b) likelihood of withdrawal symptoms when drinking is reduced.

84
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What is the global burden of disease attributed to alcohol?

Around 5%.

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Which demographic has higher rates of alcohol use disorders?

Men, Native Americans, and Whites.

86
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What are the two main genetic factors contributing to substance use disorders?

(1) Level of response to alcohol and (2) neurophysiology markers.

87
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What role does learning theory play in drinking behavior?

Drinking is largely learned through classical and operant conditioning.

88
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What is the essence of the DSM classification system for substance use disorders?

It includes 10 drug classes, each defined as a separate substance use disorder.

89
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What is the essential feature of substance use disorders?

Continued substance use despite clinically and functionally significant impairment or distress.

90
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What are the four categories of maladaptive behaviors related to substance use?

Impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria.

91
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What is the classification of substance use disorders based on symptom severity?

Mild (2-3 symptoms), moderate (4-5 symptoms), or severe (6+ symptoms).

92
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What is the impact of chronic substance use on neurological circuitry?

It may lead to persistent changes that increase vulnerability for relapse.

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What is the role of the HPA axis in addiction?

Stress and adversity are risk factors for substance use disorders.

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What is the 'hijacking view' of addiction?

Modern substances bypass adaptive systems, directly affecting emotion and motivation circuits.

95
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What does the harmful dysfunction perspective suggest about addiction?

Addiction is a motivational dysfunction with compulsive behavior affinities.

96
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What is the false 'pathology versus choice' paradigm in addiction?

It assumes addictive behavior is either caused by pathology (involuntary) or by choice (voluntary).

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What is equifinality in the context of addiction?

A disorder can derive from multiple different pathways.

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What does 'chipping' refer to in substance use?

The ability to use an addictive substance in low levels without developing problematic use.

99
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What is the significance of the P300 wave component of ERPs in addiction?

Low amplitude is associated with an increased risk of drinking problems.

100
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How does the behavioral economics perspective explain substance use disorders?

Individuals discount delayed reinforcers compared to immediate reinforcers.