Communicable Disease Practice Flashcards

Comprehensive flashcards covering infectious diseases, their etiologic agents, diagnostic tools, and key clinical manifestations based on lecture notes.

How is a 'Communicable Disease' defined in the lecture?

An illness caused by an agent that is easily transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host in different modes of transmission.

Which link in the Chain of Infection refers to the environment or objects on which an organism survives and multiplies?

Reservoir

Which link in the Chain of Infection is considered the easiest link to break?

Mode of Transmission

In the context of 'Indirect contact', what are the '5 Fs' of vehicle-borne transmission?

Fingers, foods, feces, fluids, and fomites.

How are droplet nuclei and dust distinguished in terms of size and distance in Airborne transmission?

Droplet nuclei are $< 5\text{ microns}$ and travel $> 3\text{ ft}$, while dust is associated with loosened soil.

What are the three components of the Epidemiologic Triangle?

Host (the 'who'), Agent (the 'what'), and Environment (the 'where').

Define 'Endemic' occurrence of a disease.

The continuous occurrence throughout a period of time of the usual number of cases in a given locality.

How is 'Artificial Passive' immunity acquired?

Through the administration of antitoxins and immunoglobulins.

During which pattern of infection do pathognomonic (hallmark) signs occur?

Period of Illness

What is the causative agent and incubation period of Tuberculosis (TB)?

Causative agent is Mycobacterium tuberculosis and the incubation period is $3$ to $8\text{ weeks}$.

What is the primary diagnostic tool for Tuberculosis (TB)?

Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM)

What are the specific side effects associated with the TB medication Rifampicin (H)?

Red-orange urine and sweat, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and permanent discoloration of contact lenses.

What deficiency is caused by Isoniazid (R), and what condition does it lead to?

Vitamin $B_6$ (Pyridoxine) deficiency, which leads to Peripheral Neuritis.

What is the pathognomonic sign of Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)?

Leonine facies (thickening of forehead skin).

What are the two types of Leprosy based on the Slit Skin Smear (SSS) count?

Paucibacillary ($< 5 \text{ (+)}$ SSS) and Multibacillary ($> 5 \text{ (+)}$ SSS).

Which medication used for Leprosy can cause brownish-black discoloration and dryness of the skin?

Clofazimine ($300\text{ mg}$)

What is the intermediary host for Schistosomiasis (snail fever) in the Philippines?

The tiny snail Oncomelania quadrasi.

What is the drug of choice for treating all species of Schistosomiasis?

Praziquantel (Biltricide)

What is the vector and the primary diagnostic test for Filariasis?

The vector is the Aedes Poecilius mosquito, and the diagnostic test is the Nocturnal Blood Examination (NBE).

Which species of Plasmodium is the most common cause of Malaria?

Plasmodium falciparum

Describe the positive result criteria for the Tourniquet Test (Rumpel-Leeds Test) in Dengue.

A test is positive when $20$ or more petechiae per $2.5\text{ cm}$ square ($1\text{ inch}$ square) are observed.

What is the pathognomonic sign of Measles (Rubeola)?

Koplik spots

What is the etiologic agent of Chicken Pox?

Human (alpha) herpesvirus $3$ (Varicella-zoster virus).

Which diagnostic test for Mumps is considered most useful for an early presumptive diagnosis?

Serum amylase Determination (elevated levels).

What is the etiologic agent of Diphtheria?

Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler bacillus).

What are the characteristics of the Schick Test used for Diphtheria?

Injection of $0.1\text{ mL}$ of dilute diphtheria toxin intradermally; a positive test (inflammation/induration) indicates a lack of antibodies.

What are 'Risus sardonicus' and 'Trismus' in the context of Tetanus?

Trismus is lockjaw (painful spasms of masticatory muscles), and Risus sardonicus refers to painful spasms of facial muscles.

What are the hallmark signs of Cholera (El Tor)?

Profuse colorless diarrhea (rice-watery stool) and severe dehydration.

What are the pathognomonic clinical manifestations during the 'Typhoid State' of Typhoid Fever?

Coma vigil, Subsultus tendinum, Carphologia, and Delirium.

What are the two life stages of Entamoeba Histolytica in Amoebiasis?

The Cyst (infective stage) and the Trophozoite (vegetative form that invades tissue).

What are the three major causes of Soil-transmitted Helminthiases?

Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm), Trichuris trichiura (whipworm), and Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm).

What is the etiologic agent of Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (Red Tide)?

Dinoflagellates, specifically Pyromidium bahamense var. compressum.

What is the most definitive diagnostic test for Rabies?

Fluorescent rabies antibody (RFA) or the presence of Negri bodies in the dog’s brain.

How is Category III Rabies exposure defined?

Single or multiple bites on the upper body (hands, head, face, neck), contamination of mucus membranes with saliva, or puncture/lacerations.

What is the pathognomonic sign and causative agent of Scabies?

The pathognomonic sign is a burrow (short, wavy, scaly grey line) caused by the itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei.

What is the definitive diagnostic test for Anthrax?

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) for Bacillus anthracis.

Identify the primary symptom differences between males and females in Gonorrhea.

Males typically have dysuria and purulent discharge, while 80 \text{ %} of females are asymptomatic but may experience yellowish purulent discharge.

Describe the Primary and Secondary stages of Syphilis.

Primary stage involves a painless chancre (sore); Secondary stage involves symptoms like macules (rashes) on the trunk, palms, and soles, and patchy hair loss.

What are the presumptive and confirmatory tests for HIV/AIDS?

Presumptive: Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA); Confirmatory: Western blot.