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These patients are more likely to show blue-yellow color vision anomalies (Mark ALL that apply):

A: Chronic alcoholics
B: Patients that suffered traumatic head injury

C: Patient with nuclear sclerosis
D: Menopausal women

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108 Terms

1

These patients are more likely to show blue-yellow color vision anomalies (Mark ALL that apply):

A: Chronic alcoholics
B: Patients that suffered traumatic head injury

C: Patient with nuclear sclerosis
D: Menopausal women

A, B, C

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2

The best wavelength discrimination for a protanope occurs at this wavelength:

490 nm

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3

The neutral point in tritanopia occurs at this wavelength:

509 nm

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4

The most common color vision anomaly is ______ with a prevalence of ____ among Caucasian males:

A: Deuteranopia, 8%

B: Protanomaly, 1%
C: Deuteranomaly, 5%

D: tritanopia, 1%

C

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5

According to Kollner's rule, a patient with diabetic retinopathy is more likely to have this color vision anomaly:

A: Blue- Yellow
B: Red - Green
C: Monochromacy

D: No expected color vision anomaly

A

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6

The only color vision test that can differentiate an anomalous trichromat from a dichromate is the following:

A: Lanthony desaturated D-15 color vision test

B: Nagel anomaloscope
C: Farnsworth- Munsell 100 Hue Test

D: Farnsworth D-15 test

B

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7

A father with anomalous color vision marries a woman who is a carrier. What percentage of daughters will have an anomalous color vision?

50%

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8

Which is true of hereditary color vision anomalies?

A: Almost always blue-yellow
B: Equally prevalent in males and females

C: Symmetric: same in each eye
D: Unstable over time

C

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9

Which of the following patients is MOST likely to have a blue-yellow color anomaly?

A: Toxic Amblyopia
B: Alcoholic
C: Diabetic retinopathy

D: Leber's optic atrophy

B

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10

Which is FALSE regarding anomalous trichromats?

A: All three photopigments are present
B: Spectrum dispalced toward shorter wavelength in protanopia
C: Spe
ctrum displaced toward longer wavelengths in deuteranopia

D: Most have acquired their color vision anomaly

D

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11

Which is FALSE regarding dichromats?

A: Missing one photopigment
B:
Visual acuity usually impaired
C: Cone mosaic generally does not show missing cone types

D: Missing photopigment replaced by another photopigment

B

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12

Protanopes and deuteranopes are monochromats when they have to discriminate only on the basis of wavelength alone at this (these) wavelengths:

A: Less than 507 nm

B: Less than 545 nm

C: At 520 nm
D:
More than 545 nm

D

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13

You have a patient with deuteranopia. Change of wavelength discrimination is worst for this patient at this wavelength:

A: 440 nm

B: 495 nm

C: 530 nm

D: 590 nm

B 495 nm

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14

Which of the following is the least appropriate illuminant when testing color vision?

A: Macbeth lamp
B: Varilux F1576/VLX
C: Indirect sunlight
D: Standard fluorescent lighting

D standard fluorescent lighting

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15

According to Kollner's rule which color vision anomaly is expected in a patient with age-related macular degeneration?

A: Red-green
B: Blue-Yellow
C: Tritanomaly
D: Monochroimacy

B blue-yellow

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16

Which color patch will look totally white to a protanope?

A: 492 nm

B: 498 nm

C: 570 nm

D: 555 nm

A. 492nm

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17

Which is the most prevalent color vision anomaly in males?

A: Deuteranopia

B: Protanopia
C
: Deuteranomaly

D: Protanomaly

C deuteranomaly

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18

A father with anomalous color vision marries a mother that is a carrier. What per cent of all their children will have anomalous color vision?

A: 0%

B: 25%

C: 50%

D: 75%

C 50%

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19

in the color plate above, the circle is not recognized by a pt with this condition:

A: Protanopes
B:
Deuteranopes
X C: Tritanopes
X D: All patients can see the circle

B. Deuteranope

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20

The color deficiency shown below is characteristic of:

A: Deuteranopia

B: Tritanomaly

C: Protanomaly

D: Protanopia

B tritanomaly

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21

The color test below (lanthony d-15 color vision test) is more useful in determining acquire losses in this disease:

A: Retinitis pigmentosa
B: Glaucoma
C: Age-related macular degeneration

D: Cataracts

B Glaucoma

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22

The figure below shows the confusion lines for:

A: Deuteranopia
B: Protanopia
C: Tritanopia
D: Protanomalous trichromat

A. Deuteranopia

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23

The color test below is more useful in determining acquire losses in this disease:

A: Retinitis pigmentosa
B:
Glaucoma
C: Age-related macular degeneration

D: Cataracts

B glaucoma

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24

Which is false regarding the Planckian locus?

A: Sample H can be made by combining 510 nm with illuminant B
B: Sample H can be made by combining 520 nm with illuminant D65
C: Planckian locus is formed by samples that can be considered variants of white
D:
Planckian locus does not include standard white (W) in the center of the CIE diagram

D

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25

How can a monochromat distinguish objects of different colors?

A: Based on wavelength alone
B:
Based on brightness of the color

C: Based on angle of reflection
D: Based on hue

B. based on angle of reflection

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26

Given that λ1 is a metamer of (λ2 + λ3 ) and that λ4 is a metamer of (λ5 + λ6) , which is true?

A:(λ1 +λ2 + λ3) isametamerof 2((λ5 +λ6)
B:
(λ1 + λ5 + λ6) is a metamer of (λ4 + λ2 + λ3)

C:(λ1+λ3 +λ5) isametamerof (λ2 + λ4+ λ6)

D:(λ1 +λ2) isametamerof (λ4+λ5)

B: (λ1 + λ5 + λ6) is a metamer of (λ4 + λ2 + λ3)

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27

The best wavelength discrimination occurs at these wavelengths: (Mark ALL that apply):

> A: 495 nm

X B: 507 nm

X C: 555 nm

> D: 590 nm

A 495 nm

D 590

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28

According to current evident regarding color vision anomalies, which of the following are true? Mark all that apply:

A: In protanomalous trichromats, erythrolabe is replaced by chlorolabe
B
: In deuteranopes, chlorolabe is replaced by erythrolabe
C: Resolution acuities of protanopes, deuteranopes and tritanopes are generally normal

D: In deuteranomaly, the M-cone spectrum is displaced toward longer wavelengths

B: In deuteranopes, chlorolabe is replaced by erythrolabe
C: Resolution acuities of protanopes, deuteranopes and tritanopes are generally normal

D: In deuteranomaly, the M-cone spectrum is displaced toward longer wavelengths

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29

Which of the following are complementary colors?

A: Wavelengths 485 nm and 595 nm

B: Wavelengths 490 nm and 600 nm

C: Wavelengths 470 nm and 560 nm

D: Wavelengths 490 nm and 610 nm

A: Wavelengths 485 nm and 595 nm

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30

100 quanta of light of wavelenth λa and 100 quanta of wavelength λb are incident on the retina of a patient with a distribution of photopigment distribution as shown above. What is the correct conclusion from the above experience?

A: Monochromats can distinguish two monochromatic color patches based on brightness alone

B: Dichromats can distinguish two monochromatic color patches based on brightness alone
C: Dichromats can distinguish two monochromatic color patches based on wavelength alone
D: Monochromats can distinguish two monochromatic color patches based on wavelength alone

C: Dichromats can distinguish two monochromatic color patches based on wavelength alone

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31

A monochromatic stimulus of _____ nm appears less saturated (whiter) than any other monochromatic stimulus

A: 450

B: 570

C: 555

D: 640

B

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32

In the CIE system, a color has a value of x = 0.3 and y = 0.4. What is the value of Z?

A: 0.7

B: 0.5

C: 0.3

D: 0.1

C: 0.3

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33

Which characteristic of the Munsell color appearance system is equivalent to chroma?

A: Brightness and luminance
B
: Colorimetric purity and saturation

C: Hue and value
D: Value and saturation

B: Colorimetric purity and saturation

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34

There are cells in the LGN that have a reduction in their firing frequency by wavelengths below 570 nm and have an increae in their firing frequency by stimuli above 570 nm like shown above. This is evidence for:

A: Color-opponent theory

B: Trichromatic theory
C: Duplex retina theory
D. lateral inhibition theory

A: Color-opponent theory

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35

Most monochromatic stimuli change their hue as the intensity is increased. The exception occurs at these wavelengths:

A: 458 nm, 503 nm and 578 nm

B: 478 nm, 555 nm and 578 nm

C: 478 nm, 503 nm and 578 nm

D: 407 nm, 555 nm and 578 nm

C: 478 nm, 503 nm and 578 nm

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36

Under photopic conditions a _____ nm stimulus is perceived as brighter than any other equal energy stimulus.

A: 450

B: 507

C: 555

D: 650

C. 555nm

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37

A patch of color is a mixture of 600nm light of luminance 10 ft lamberts and white light of 15 lambert. What is the colorimetric purity of the patch?

A: 2.5%

B: 25%

C: 4%

D: 40%

D: 40%

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38

Which of the following methods is the least reliable when determining the photopic luminosity function?

A: Minimally distinct border
B: Heterochromatic flicker photometry

C: Direct matching
D: All equally relaible

C: Direct matching

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39

Rhe white lines of the above CIE chromaticity diagram represent the color confusion lines for:

A: Protanopia
B: Deuteranopia
C: Tritanopia

D: Deuteranomalous trichromacy

C: Tritanopia

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40

This test allows you to distinguish a dichromat from an anomalous trichromat:

A: Ishihara
B: Farnswoth-Munsell D-100 Test

C: Farsnworth D-15
D: Nagel anomaloscope

D: Nagel anomaloscope

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41

The above results represent the following color vision anomaly:

A: Normal (no anomaly)

B: Deutan
C: Protan

D: Tritan

C: protan

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42

In the above diagram, the distance from W to M is 10 and the distance from M to O is 12. What is the color obtained when we mix equal amounts of 500 nm and 560 nm?

A: Dominant wavelength is 520 nm, and excitation purity of 0.454

B: Dominant wavelength is 520 nm, and excitation purity if 0.545

C: Dominant wavelength is 520 nm and excitation purity is 0.833

D: Dominant wavelength is 520 nm and excitation purity is 1.2

A: dominant wave is 520nm, and excitation purity of 0.454

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43

A cell with the receptive field to the left has a response to the right (increase firing by red on center. This response is typical of a ______ cell in the LGN:

A: Parvo

B: Magno

C: Konio

D: Simple

A: parvo

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44

Based on the diagram above, which of the following are complementary?

A: 490 and 540 nm

B: 495 and 560 nm

C: 480 and 560 nm

D: 490 and 600 nm

D: 490 and 600 nm

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45

A point source has a luminous intensity of 500 candelas, what is the illumination over a surface at an angle of 30 degrees from the vertical at a distance of 4 feet?

A: 100 ft-candles

B: 250 ft-candles

C: 15.6 ft-canldes

D: 27.1 ft-candles

D: 27.1 ft-candles

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46

A point source has a luminous intensity of 500 candelas, what is the illumination at a distance of 4 feet?

A: 31.3 ft-candles

B: 62.5 ft-candles

C: 250 ft-candles

D: 500 ft-candles

A: 31.3 ft-candles

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47

Light falls on a Lambertian surface. The illuminance is 10 ft-candles. If the reflectance factor is 0.2, what is the luminance in ft- lamberts?

A: 2

B: 4

C: 8

D: 10

A: 2

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48

What is the luminous flux for a 10 W stimulus of 555nm at photopic levels? (you know the luminous efficiency of 555nm light)

A: 170.8 lumens

B: 341.5 lumens

C: 683 lumens

D: 6830 lumens

d: 6830 lumens

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49

A 50 Watt source of 650 nm emits light into a rectangular wall which is 4 meters long and 2 meters tall. What is the illuminance on the wall? The luminous efficiency of light of 650 nm is 0.107.

A: 2183 lux
B: 457 lux
C: 914 lux
D: 457 ft-candle

B: 457 lux

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50

A point light source has a luminous intensity of 10 candelas. What is the luminous flux or luminous power φν (lumens) for this source for a hemisphere (half of a sphere)?

A: 34.2 lumens

B: 62.8 lumens

C: 125.7 lumens

D: 251.4 lumens

B: 62.8 lumens

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51

Which methods provide a reliable photopic luminosity function and obey Abney's law? Choose ALL that apply.

X A: Direct matching
B:
Heterrochromatic flicker photometry
C: Minimally distinct border method
X D: All of them provide a reliable photopic lluminosity function

B: Heterrochromatic flicker photometry
C: Minimally distinct border method

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52

Using the light meter you find that the illumination in the eyeglass dispensing area is 18 ft-candles. This level of illumination is adequate for this area of your optometric office.

True

False

False

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53

The main unit of luminous power:

A: Watt

B: Lumen
C: Steradian
D: Foot-candles

B lumen

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54

What are the total luminous power for a stimulus having 5 Watts at 475 nm; 2.5 Watts at 555 nm and 2.5 Watts at 600 nm?

X A: 781 lumens

B: 1563 lumens

C: 3125 lumens

D: 6,250 lumens

C: 3125 lumens

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55

Light meters are usually calibrated in the following units:

A: Foot-candles

B: Foot-lamberts

C: Candelas
D: Lumens

A: foot-candles

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56

Two objects look equally bright. Which one of the following is more likely to be true?

A: Both objects emit the same number of lumens

B: Both object have the same illuminance
C:
Both objects have the same luminance
D: Both objects have the same radiant flux

C: Both objects have the same luminance

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57

Which one of the following is a unit of luminance?

A: Lumens
B: Lux
C: Ft-lamberts

D: Candela

C: Ft-lamberts

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58

A light meter is tilted 30 degrees from the perpendicular position with respect to a point source of light. The meter reads 800 lux and is 3 meters away from the source. What is the intensity of the point source in candelas?

A: 678.9

B: 2771

C: 6235

D: 8314

D: 8314

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59

A point source has an intensity of 10,000 candelas. What is the illumination at 4 ft in foot-candles?

A: 35.7

B: 625

C: 2500

D: 8034

B: 625

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60

The unit of luminance in the metric system is:

A: Ft-lamberts

B: Candela
C: Lux
D
: Nit

d: nit

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61

Which of the following terms is the one most closely associated with brightness?

A: Irradiance

B: Radiant power

C: Illuminance
D
: Luminance

d: luminance

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62

A point light source has a luminous intensity of 800 candelas, What is the total luminous power (lumens) for this source?

A: 15,067

B: 10.053

C: 3.200

D: 63.7

B: 10.053

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63

A light meter is used to determine the lighting conditions in a classroom. The reading is 100 foot-candles. If the area of the probe is 0.20 square-ft, how many lumens are incident on the surface of the probe?

A: 1500

B: 20
C: 5.4

D: 8

B:20

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64

An engineer uses a light meter on a cosine (matte) surface having a reflectance factor of 0.35. if the luminance of the surface is 7 foot-lamberts, what is the illuminance falling on the surface in lumens/ft2 ?

A: 2.45

B: 4.25

C: 13

D: 20

D:20

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65

What is the recommended illuminance for a typical classroom?

A: 10-50 ft-candles
B: 50-100 foot-candles

C: 100-200 foot-candles

D: 200-400 foot-candles

B: 50-100 foot-candles

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66

A point source of 1000 cd is 4 ft from a sheet of paper. another point source is at 5 ft from the same source. The illumination is the same for both sources. What is the intensity of the unknown point source?

A: 640 cd

B: 1259 cd

C: 1563 cd

D: 2385 cd

C: 1563 cd

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67

The persons at the top have a diferent retinal image size than those at the bottom, but their apparent size is similar. Our visual system compensates for differences in retinal image size by taking into account the relative distance of the object. This is called:

A: Lightness constancy

B: Linear perspective
C: Size constancy
D: Muller-Lyer illusion

C: Size constancy

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68

What is the best explanation of the above illusion?

A: Less lateral inhibition of the receptive field at the intersection of the black squares

B: More contrast at the interception of the black squares
C: Saccadic suppression
D:
More lateral inhibition of the receptive field at the intersection of the black squares

D: More lateral inhibition of the receptive field at the intersection of the black squares

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69

The horizontal portion of the top figure looks longer than the horizontal portion of the one at the bottom. What is the best explanation of this illusion?

A: The figure at the top is interpreted to be a distant corner of a building and perceived as larger
B: The arrows of the figure at the bottom point inwards creating a contraction
C: The figure at the bottom is interpreted to be a distant corner of a building and perceived as shorter

D: Both are perceived to be equal in size

A: The figure at the top is interpreted to be a distant corner of a building and perceived as larger

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70

In the Ponzo illusion (above) , the top yellow horizontal line looks longer than the yellow line at the bottom. Why?

A: It is actually larger than the one at the bottom
B: Line at the top is interpreted to be farther away due to linear perspective, and perceived longer

C: Line at the bottom interpreted to be farther away away and perceived shorter
D: Both are perceived to be of the same size

B: Line at the top is interpreted to be farther away due to linear perspective, and perceived longer

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71

A picture is painted so that it looks proportional and normal only when it is viewed at a certain angle and position. This is called ______ picture:

A: Anamorphic

B: Stereoscopic

C: Tranaglyph

D: Vectographic

A: Anamorphic

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72

A person emits the phoneme "ba". However, depending on the movement of the lips, the phoneme may be interpreted as "ba" or "da", implying that what we hear can be influenced by what we see. This is an example of this effect:

A: Auditory-visual contrast
B: Talbot-Plateau
C: Stiles-Crawford effect of the third kind

D: McGurk

D: McGurk

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73

he above graph for a detection experiment shows that a change in a stimulus ΔI is proportional to the stimulus I. This graph represents the following:

A: Lightness constancy
B: Stiles- Crawford effect of the first kind

C: Granit-Harper Law
D:
Weber's law

d: weber’s law

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74

When taking logMAR visual acuity, which psychophysical method is used by the optometrist?

A: Ascending limits

B: Descending limits

C: Staircase
D: Constant Stimuli

B: descending limits

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75

You determi
EXAM 2: You determine the visual acuity of an infant using the Preferential looking technique. What psychophysical method are you using?

A: Method of Constant Stimuli
B: Two-alternative Forced Choice

C: Four-alternative foced Choice

D: Staircase

B: Two-alternative Forced Choice

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76

In the Method of Constant Stimuli a stimulus of intensity 4 is detected 40% of the time. When the intensity is 5 it is detected 74% of the time. What is the threshold?

A: 4.15

B: 4.29

C: 4.35

D: 4.73

B: 4.29

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77

What is the threshold in the Method of Constant Stimuli?

A: The intensity at which detection is 25%
B: The intensity at which detection is 50%
C: The intensity at which detection is 62.5%

D: The intensity at which detection is 100%

B: The intensity at which detection is 50%

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78

Dark adaptometry is often based on this psychophysical method:

A: Ascending limits

B: Descending limits

C: Forced-choice

D: Adjustment

A: Ascending limits

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79

Which of the following psychophysical methods has a better control for bias of the patient?

A: Constant stimuli

B: Forced-choice
C: Ascending limits

D: Descending limits

B: Forced-choice

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80

What is the threshold in a four-alternative forced choice procedure?

A: 25%

B: 50%

C: 62.5%

D: 75%

C. 62.5%

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81

The ROC curves above represent three clinical tests. Which is the best test (optimizes the sensitivity and specificity of the test)?

A: A
B: B
C
: C
D: All are equally good

C

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82

Which point of the ROC curve above maximizes the Hit rate and the Correct Rejection rate simultaneously?

A: A
B: B
C
: C
D: Can't be determined

B

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83

A new color vision test determines that a patient has a red-green color vision anomaly 85% of the time when the patient has this condition. It also determines that a patient has no color vision anomaly 90% of the time when the patient is truly normal. What is the specificity of this test?

A: 10%

B: 15%

C: 85%

D: 90%

d: 90%

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84

The following psychophysical law states that there is a compression or saturation of sensation as stimulus intensity increases:

A: Fechner's
B: Talbot - Plateau

C: Steven's
D: Granit-Harper

C: Steven's

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85

In a detection experiment, the Misses are 8% and the Correct Rejections are 54%. What is the per cent of False Positives (False Alarms)?

A: 92%

B: 46%

C: 31%

D: 69%

B: 46%

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86

Why does the moon appears larger at the horizon than at the zenith?

A: It is actually larger at the horizon than at the zenith
B: The size of the image that the moon makes at the retina when it is at the horizon is larger than the size of the image at the zenith

C: The moon at the horizon is perceived to be farther away and is enlarged by the visual percepetual system
D: The moon at the horizon is percieved to be closer and is enlarged by the visual perceptual system

C: The moon at the horizon is perceived to be farther away and is enlarged by the visual percepetual system

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87

According to the McGurk Effect, when there is a conflict between visual perception and auditory perception, which one is usually dominant?

A: Visual

B: Auditory
C: Both at about equal

D: Propioceptive

A: Visual

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88

Consider the following image: Why does the horizontal yellow line at the background (top) seems larger than the horizontal yellow line at the foreground (bottom) in the picture?

A: Both lines are actually perceived to be of the same length
B: Line at the foreground (bottom) is perceived to be farther away and is reduced by the perceptual system (size constancy)

C: Line at the background (top) is perceived to be farther away and is enlarged by the perceptual system (size constancy)
D: Yellow line at the background (top) is actually slightly larger than the yellow line at the foreground (bottom)

C: Line at the background (top) is perceived to be farther away and is enlarged by the perceptual system (size constancy)

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89

According to signal detection theory, which of the following affects the decision process of an observer? Choose ALL that apply

A: the adaptation level of the sensory system of the observer
B: The payoff matrix, that is, how is the subject rewarded for hits and correct rejections

C: The intensity of the stimulus presented to the observer
D: The mood of the experimenter when he presents the stimuli to the observer

A: the adaptation level of the sensory system of the observer
B: The payoff matrix, that is, how is the subject rewarded for hits and correct rejections

C: The intensity of the stimulus presented to the observer

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90

A Snellen chart in an optometric office looks no different when it is taken outside the office on a sunny day. Which of the following are true in this situation? Choose ALL that apply

A: Contrast is the same on both situations
B: Weber's law applies
C: The phenomenon is called lightness constancy
D: Contrast is different due to the higher light intensity outside

A: Contrast is the same on both situations
B: Weber's law applies
C: The phenomenon is called lightness constancy

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91

Although the central squares are physically identical, the one at the left looks brighter than the one at the right. This phenomenon is referred as:

A: Metacontrast
B: Crowding
C: Backward masking
D: Simultaneous contrast

D: Simultaneous contrast

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92

Which is a consequence of Steven's law?

A: There is a compresion (saturation) of sensation as the stimulus intensity increases
B: There is a compresion (saturation) of sensation as the stimulus intensity decreases
C: Changes in sensation of intensity are more noticeable as the intensity increases

D: The sensation of changes in the intensity do not depend on the intensity of the stimulus

A: There is a compresion (saturation) of sensation as the stimulus intensity increases

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93

1000 patients received a screening test for diabetes. 100 of them have diabtes and 900 do not have diabetes. Out of the 100 that have diabetes, the test was positive for 80 of them and negative for 20 of them. What is the sensitivity of the test?

A: 70%

B: 80%

C: 89%

D: 93%

B: 80%

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94

Which of the following tests uses a forced-choice procedure?

A: LogMAR visual acuity
B: Infant's preferential looking test

C: Automated visual field test
D: Brightness acuity test

B: Infant's preferential looking test

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95

You are determining the visual detection theresholdusing the staircase method with the results shown below. What is the value of the threshold?

A: 2.5

B: 3.5

C: 4.0

D: 4.5

C: 4.0

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96

Patients have different criteria for threshold. Some are "strict", some are "lax", some are middle ground. Which one of the following methods best minimizes the effect of change of criteria in the determination of the the threshold?

A: Adjustment
B: Constant stimuli

C: Forced-choice

D: Staircase

C: Forced-choice

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97

Your are developing a test to screen for glaucoma. You have 5 versons of the test (1 to 5). You obtain ROC curves for each test. Which is the best test?

A: 1

B: 3

C: 4

D: 5

d: 5

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98

You are participating in a test to detect letter A among a group of letters presented on a acreen. When you detect letter A correctly, you are rewarded with $5.00. When you fail to detect it, you lose 10 cents. Which one of the following results best represents the effect of this reward system on your responses? :

A: High Hit rate and High False Positive rate
B: High Miss rate and High Correct Rejection rate
C: High Hit rate and Low False Positive rate
D: High False Positive rate and High Correct Rejection rate

A: High Hit rate and High False Positive rate

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99

In the forced-choice method, you are asked to determine where a particular stimulus is presented in a four array arangement (below). What is the threshold ?

A: Intensity at which the stimulus is perceived 75% of the time

B: Intensity at which the stimulus is perceived 62.5% of the time

C: Intensity at which the stimulus is perceived 50% of the time

D: Intensity at which the stimulus is perceived 100% of the time

B: Intensity at which the stimulus is perceived 62.5% of the time

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100

Which one of the following psychophysical methods is least reliable due to the subject's anticipation of the result?

A: Adjustment
B: Staircase

C: Forced-choice

D: Constant stimuli

A: Adjustment

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