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A research design in which there is only one subject group or in which randomization to move than one subject group is lacking; controlled manipulation of the subjects ls preserved.
a. Case-control Design
b. Cohort Design
C. Quasi-experimental design
d. Prospective Design
C. Quasi-experimental design
An epidemiologic study that uses previously collected information to answer a research question, outcome (e.g., disease, disorder).
and is used to evaluate the relationship between a potential exposure (ey., risk factor and an
a. Case-control Design
b. Cohort Design
c. Quasi-experimental design
d. Prospective Design - Cangitselnel Tom
a. Case-control Design
The available evidence, for outcome measures, often uses experimental research designs that generally are considered suspect because of their greater potential for bias.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Outcomes research is the study of the impact of clinical practice as it occurs in the "real world", and is focused on the relative efficacy of specific interventions.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Data are collected once during a single point in time or a limited time interval to describe the outcomes that occurred for the sample of interest:
a. Longitudinal Study
b. Cross-sectional Study
c. Quasi-experimental design
d. Retrospective Design
b. Cross-sectional Study
These are all examples of performance-based outcomes measures, EXCEPT:
a. 5x Sit to stand
b. functional gait assessment
c. 6-minute walk test
d. Visual analogue scale
d. Visual analogue scale
These are all examples of self-reported outcome measures, except:
a. lower extremity functional scale (LEFS)
b. fear avoidance belief questionnaire (FABQ)
c. Parkinson's disease activity of daily living scale (PADLS)
d. functional independence measure (FIM)
d. functional independence measure (FIM)
These are examples of person-level outcomes of interest that a new tool may be developed for outcome measure, EXCEPT:
a. health status
b. disability
c. quality of life
d. health equity outcomes
d. health equity outcomes
Stability of repeated scores from respondents that are supposed to time period:
a.Internal consistency
b. Reproducibility
C. agreement
b. Reproducibility
This describes how close repeated measures are to one another.
a. Internal consistency
b. Reproducibility
C. Agreement
d. Responsiveness
C. Agreement
This is the ability of an outcome measure to determine change which is perceived to be meaningful
a. Internal consistency
b. Reproducibility
C. Agreement
d. Responsiveness
d. Responsiveness
Systematic search or critical appraisal process is used to identify and evaluate the studies included in a narrative review:
a. True
b. False
a. True
A limitation of a measure in which the instrument does not register a further decrease in score for the lowest scoring individuals:
a. Minimal Detectable Change (MDC)
b. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
c. Ceiling Effect
d. Floor Effect
d. Floor Effect
Intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC) is commonly used to assess responsiveness:
a. True
b. False
b. False
Portney and Watkins suggest score interpretations for ICC statistics, and a value of <0.75, suggests a reliability sufficient to:
a. "ensure reasonable validity"
b. "good reliability"
c. "poor to moderate reliability"
c. "poor to moderate reliability"
Which of these are potential threats to the validity of a systematic reviews:
a. incomplete search strategy
b. unreliable data extraction and appraisal methods
c. inclusion of poor-quality studies
d. All of these
d. All of these
Search-related issues in systematic reviews can include the following, except:
a. stated purpose
b. synthesis/analysis issues
c. information sources
d. search strategy
a. stated purpose
One way to fulfill the study selection criteria is for high-quality SRs to have 2 or more researchers complete the selection process, independently:
a. True
b. False
a. True
Eligibility criteria can include the following, EXCEPT:
a. characteristics of participants
b. types of interventions & comparators
c. types of outcome measures
d. None of these
d. None of these
This is the process of deciding exactly what information is to be collected from each study
a Chitical Appraisal
b. Sensitivity/subgroup analysis
c. Data Extraction protocol
d. Eligibility criteria
c. Data Extraction protocol
Qualitative synthesis includes meta analysis and sensitivity/subgroup analysis:
a. True
b. false
b. false
In this type of SR, synthesis is based on overall strength of evidence for or against the effect of intervention:
a, quantitative systematic reviews
b. qualitative systematic reviews
c. both quantitative and qualitative
b. qualitative systematic reviews
Qualitative SRs include, except:
a. vote counting
b. best evidence synthesis
c. effect size summary with pooling
d. effect size summary without pooling
c. effect size summary with pooling
This is when the number of studies supporting effectiveness of the treatment is compared to number of studies not supporting effectiveness:
a. vote counting
b. best evidence synthesis
C.effect size summary with pooling
d. effect size summary without pooling
a. vote counting
This is the effect size calculated for each study separately but no meta-analysis is conducted
a. effect size summary with pooling
b. effect size summary without pooling
C.Both of these
d. None of these
b. effect size summary without pooling
A statistical method that assumes that differences in results among studies are due to other words, the results are assumed to be similar:
a.Fixed effects model
b.Meta-analysis
c.Random effects model
d. vote counting
a.Fixed effects model
Systematic reviews about patient/client management elements other than intervention appropriately use non-experimental or quasi-experimental designs. Studies about intervention in contrast, are most likely to produce bias through experimental research designs.
a.True
b.false
b.false
Readers may get a sense of the individual study findings' homogeneity /heterogeneity by examining a plot of the individual estimates and associated confidence intervals. Overlapping confidence intervals indicate a more heterogeneous collection of results.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The "Meta-Analysis of Observational Studies in Epidemiology" (MOOSE) addresses reporting issues for meta-analyses of studies using experimental research designs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
High p values indicate low heterogeneity of trials involved in a review.
a. True
b. False
b. False
This describes the characteristics predictive of any type of future outcomes:
a. Prognostic Factors
b. Demographics
c. Risk Factors
d. Medical Hx
a. Prognostic Factors
This pertains to the predictors of future adverse events:
a. Prognostic Factors
b. Demographics
c. Risk Factors
d. Medical Hx.
c. Risk Factors
Prognostic estimates are formulated to indicate the purpose of the therapist's plan of care.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Prognostic questions regarding ultimate outcomes that physical therapists may encounter include the following, except:
a. Will my child be able to walk soon?
b. Will my knee always buckle when I walk?
c. How long will I walk using a cane?
d. How overweight is a woman to be considered slightly obese?
d. How overweight is a woman to be considered slightly obese?
Which of these questions assess the study credibility for prognostic indicators?
a. Did the investigators evaluate (or provide a citation for) the reliability of the index diagnostic test?
b. Was the study timeframe long enough to see the patients' outcome?
c.Was the time between application of the index test and the gold standard comparison diagnostic test short enough to minimize change in the subjects' condition?
b. Was the study timeframe long enough to see the patients' outcome?
When prognostic evidence shows higher research validity, it provides greater confidence that a study's findings are reasonably free from bias.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The odds are against a positive outcome when:
a. the odds ratio is more than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
b. the odds ratio is less than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
c. the odds ratio is less than one, and the outcome of interest is negative
d. the odds ratio is more than one, and the outcome of interest is negative
b. the odds ratio is less than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
The odds are in favor of a positive outcome when:
a. the odds ratio is more than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
b. the odds ratio is less than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
c. the odds ratio is less than one, and the outcome of interest is negative
d. the odds ratio is more than one, and the outcome of interest is negative
a. the odds ratio is more than one, and the outcome of interest is positive
This is the ratio of risk for developing the adverse outcome in patients with the risk factor compared to the risk in patients without the risk factor:
a. Odds ratio
b. Hazard ratio
C. Risk Factor Ratio
d. Relative Risk Ratio
d. Relative Risk Ratio
An estimate of the relative risk of developing the problem of interest over the course of the study, weighted by the number of subjects available.
a. Odds ratio
b. Hazard ratio
c. Risk Factor Ratio
d. Relative Risk Ratio
b. Hazard ratio
When study results show that the relative risk is one, this means that:
a. there is decreased risk of an adverse outcome.
b. there is 50/50 chance of increasing or decreasing risk that outcome will occur.
c. there is an increased risk of an adverse outcome.
b. there is 50/50 chance of increasing or decreasing risk that outcome will occur.
A prognostic factor includes sociodemographic, comorbid, and even the diagnostic characteristic of a patient or client that confers increased or decreased chances of positive or adverse outcomes from a disease/disorder or from interventions.
a. True
b. False
a. True
A graphic representation of the frequency of an outcome of interest over time created by plotting the percentage of individuals who are free of the outcome at successive points in time, is called a:
a. Nomogram
b. Survival Curve
c. 2x2 Contingency Table
b. Survival Curve