Food Science Test #2

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154 Terms

1
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All of these are causes of foodborne disease outbreaks EXCEPT:

 

Consumption of products cooked to the proper temperature

2
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A contaminated casserole served at a local community supper

Local outbreak

3
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A contaminated batch of beef sold at several locations of a grocery store chain leads to illnesses in several counties

Statewide/Region outbreak

4
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Contaminated produce from one farm is shipped to grocery stores nationwide and sickens hundreds of people in many states

National outbreak

5
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Contaminated packaged salads lead to hospitalization and death both in the United States and Canada

international outbreak

6
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Actions to stop a foodborne outbreak include:

reporting the outbreak through the media

throwing away foods involved in the outbreak 

closing restaurants or halting operations in facilities associated with the outbreak 

7
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A manufacturer will only recall a product if it has caused a foodborne outbreak.

false

8
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Which type of hazard would you encounter if you found a bone in your food?

physical

9
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Determine the critical limit

principle 3

10
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Determine the critical point

principle 2

11
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Hazard analysis applied to foods

principle 1

12
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Establishing record-keeping and documentation

principle 7

13
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Establish corrective actions

principle 5

14
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Establishing verification procedure

principle 6

15
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Establishing monitoring procedures

principle 4

16
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Which of the following are economic losses associated with contaminated products?

loss of business 

product recall 

production losses 

17
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When two or more individuals experience an illness from the ingestion of the same food the event is considered a foodborne outbreak.

true 

18
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Which of the following is NOT a measure to control for chemical hazards?

metal detectors

19
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Which of the following proteins is the causative agent of Celiac disease?

gluten

20
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What are the causative agents of food allergies?

proteins

21
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Food allergies affect _____% of the US population.

3-4%

22
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Celiac disease

cell mediated food allergy 

23
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Lactose intolerance

metabolic food disorder

24
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Peanut allergy

IgE-mediated food allergy

25
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Generalized shock reaction

anaphylactic shock

26
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The “Big 9” are responsible for 90% of IgE-mediated food allergies and include all of the following EXCEPT:

corn

27
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This should be administered as soon as there is indication an individual is experiencing a severe allergic reaction.

 

Epinephrine

28
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Anaphylaxis is a severe type of allergic reaction that involves two or more body systems (e.g., hives and difficulty breathing).

true 

29
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Involves immunological mechanisms

Food allergy

30
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Immune system is not involved

food intolerance

31
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Individual can tolerate a limited amount of the food

food intolerance

32
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Total avoidance of the offending food is necessary

food allergy

33
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Which of the following is NOT a way to manage food allergies?

 

Frequently eat at restaurants

34
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When used as an ingredient, which of these foods has the highest number of recalls in regard to food allergy?

milk

35
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A bacterial population has an initial count of 3 organisms and a generation time of 20 minutes. How many organisms will there be after 2 hours under optimum conditions for growth?

192

36
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Demonstrated that air was not the cause of spoilage

louis pasteur

37
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Developed the first microscope

anton van leeuwenhoek

38
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Father of canning

nicholas appert

39
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Received the Nobel Prize in 1905 for demonstrating that a particular organism is responsible for a disease and that it can be transmitted from one animal to another

robert koch 

40
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Viruses replicate in food and living cells.

false

41
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Bacteria reproduce themselves by a process called:

binary fission

42
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Virus replicates and new particles burst out of the cell

fourth

43
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Virus attaches to cell

second

44
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Food carries virus to intestinal tract

first

45
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Virus injects its genetic material into the host cell

third

46
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All fungi produce mycotoxins.

false

47
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Aflatoxin is found in

peanuts

maize

cottonseeds 

48
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Which of the following outcomes is not the result of chronic exposure to low levels of mycotoxins?

diarrhea

49
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Patulin is a carcinogen produced by molds growing on corn.

false

50
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Generation times for some common foodborne pathogens at 20°C and pH 7.0 are given in the table below:

 

B. cereus

51
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What is the lower limit used as criteria for countable microbial colonies on media plates?

25

52
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Fermented products typically have a high pH.

false

53
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How can water activity be determined?

 

By measuring the vapor pressure of water above a food and comparing to that of pure water.

54
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Microorganisms are capable of producing which of the following.

toxins

alcohol

CO2

55
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Under optimal conditions, which of the following grows fastest?

bacteria

56
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Which of the following are factors that affect the growth of microorganisms?

moisture

temperature

time

57
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Which of the following usually requires the highest pH (lowest acid level) for growth?

bacteria

58
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Pathogenic bacteria requires an Aw greater than ______ for growth?

0.85

59
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What is the water activity of 100 g of a certain brand of mayonnaise that contain 77.6% oil, 1.74% salt and 17.2% moisture?

cannot be calculated with given information 

60
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Which plate should be counted to determine the number in the original sample?

plate 4

61
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Which of the following classification is used to describe the microorganisms that prefer the warmest temperatures for growth?

 

Thermophiles

62
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What is the term for application of multiple food preservation methods such as temperature, water activity and pH that aim to ensure food safety and quality by inactivation of different types of microorganisms?

 

Hurdle concept

63
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Which of the following products or practices is not associated with botulism.

 

Time-temperature abuse

64
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Which of the following microorganisms produces toxins that do not commonly lead to death, but causes symptoms such as abdominal pain, cramps, vomiting, a low body temperature.

 

Staphylococcus aureus

65
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Which of the following is an illness that causes muscle paralysis with higher rates of death within those who are affected?

 

Clostridium botulinum

66
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Oftentimes resembles Clostridium perfringens

diarrheal type

67
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Oftentimes resembles Staphylococcus aureus

emetic type

68
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An infection in the GI tract that leads to an intoxication

diarrheal type

69
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The microorganism grows and produces the toxin in the food which then leads to intoxication upon consumption

emetic type

70
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What is the temperature at which you should keep food hot after cooking in order for it to be safe?

 

140oF (60oC)

71
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It is safe for infant to consume honey.

false 

72
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Clostridium botulinum is a sporeforming bacterium that will not germinate at a pH of:

 

<4.8

73
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If you have a dry food product (like Cheetos), it is best to store them in environments with high relative humidity.

false

74
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Listeriosis is associate with:

lunch meat

still births 

unpasteurized milk 

75
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Consuming raw oysters will put you at risk of foodborne illness caused by __________.

 

Vibrio vulnificus

76
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Which product is associated most with illnesses caused by Salmonella enterica?

poultry

77
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Mary Mallon was the first individual to be identified as a carrier of typhoid fever, without showing symptoms.

true 

78
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Which individuals are at risk for developing Listeriosis?

elderly

pregnant women 

immunocompromised 

79
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The strain of Salmonella called Salmonella Typhi causes gastroenteritis.

false

80
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Which product or practice is not usually associated with Campylobacter?

eggs

81
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Which of these bacterial infections causes the greatest number of hospitalizations in the U.S.?

 

Salmonella spp.

82
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Campylobacter has a high mortality rate and a low morbidity rate.

false

83
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Which type of Vibrio is associated with natural disaster and is waterborne?

 

Vibrio cholerae

84
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Which of the following causes toxin-mediated infections?

E. coli O157:H7

Shigella

85
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Preventing foodborne illnesses require:

proper cooking

good personal hygiene

avoid cross-contamination

86
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Which of these two organisms may cause bloody diarrhea?

 

Shigella and Shiga-like toxin producing E. coli

87
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All E. coli strains are pathogenic and can cause illnesses in humans.

false

88
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Which virus causes the most cases of foodborne disease?

norovirus

89
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Non-sporeforming and can be either pathogenic or non-pathogenic

E. Coli

90
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Mesophilic organism that is associated with most commonly infecting children under the age of 5

Shigella

91
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Causes jaundice

Hepatitis A virus

92
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The leading cause of foodborne illness in the U.S.

Norovirus

93
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Apple juices that are unpasteurized must have a warning label that informs consumers about the risks of consuming unpasteurized products.

true 

94
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Which of the individuals are particularly susceptible to STEC E. coli?

young children

95
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Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) can lead to:

Permeant loss of kidney function

death

96
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Which products and/or practices are usually NOT associated with Shigella?

shellfish

97
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Which product is usually not associated with Hepatitis A?

ground beef

98
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When preparing foods, separating raw meats and poultry from other foods that will not be cooked does not improve food safety.

false

99
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Which of the following statements is not true about parasites?

 

They always spend their entire life cycle in one, permanent host

100
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This parasite has been associated with recent outbreaks in the US causing illness in more than 1,500 individuals.

 

Cyclospora spp.