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Where is blood flowing in isovolumetric contraction
Into the atria (no movement in or out of ventricles)
The last 1/3 of ventricle filling occurs via
Atrial systole (contraction = active filling)
What structure tells the atria to contract
SA node
The period where the ventricles are full of blood, all valves are closed and pressure is building within the ventricles is called
Isovolumetric contraction
What structure carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
Pulmonary arteries
What structure carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart
Pulmonary veins
The pulmonary artery is the ______ artery in fetal circulation
Umbilical
How does blood become oxygenated in the lungs
Bohr effect
Average End diastolic volume
120mL
Average End systolic volume
50mL
In order to open the aortic semilunar valve the pressure in the ventricle must be higher than _______
Pressure in the aorta
How much of ventricular filling is done passively
80% (2/3)
The volume of blood in the ventricles BEFORE contraction is called
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
Blood remaining in the ventricles AFTER ejection is called
End-systolic volume (ESV)
EDV-ESV equals?
stroke volume
Stroke volume x heart rate equals?
Cardiac ouput
What makes the 1st heart sound
The AV valves closing
What makes the 2nd heart sound
The semilunar valves closing
T/F a 3rd heart sound is always pathological
False - normal under 40
T/F a 4th heart sound is always pathological
TRUE
What is the anatomical pacemaker of the heart
SA node
What is the significance of the plateau phase in a cardiac action potential
A second AP cannot occur - prevents tetany
What causes the plateau phase in a cardiac action potential
Slow flow of calcium into the cell
What allows the heart to have autorhythmicity
Leaky sodium channels
What occurs at the P wave on the electrocardiogram
Atrial depolarization (atrial systole)
What is the Winkebock phenomenom
Secondary heart block - elongation of PR interval until 2 P waves appear (ECG)
Primary heart block can be seen on ECG when there is elongation of_____
PR interval
When does ventricular contraction occur on the ECG
QRS complex
When does atrial repolarization occur on an ECG
during the QRS complex (hidden by ventricular depolarization)
The ST segment of an ECG shows what phase of the cardiac cycle
Isovolumetric contraction
When does ventricular Repolarization occur on ECG
T wave
An alterred ST segment (ECG) is indicative of
Myocardial infarction
What is happening during the U wave of ECG
Repolarization of papillary muscle
What conditions cause diastolic murmurs
ARMS & PRTS
Aortic Regurgitation, Mitral Stenosis, Pulmonic Regurgitation, Tricuspid Stenosis
T/F aortic stenosis will cause a systolic murmur
True
T/F mitral stenosis will cause a systolic murmur
False - diastolic (ARMS and PRTS)
Mitral regurgitation will cause _____ murmurs
Systolic
Stenosis of the bicuspid valve will cause ______ murmurs
Diastolic (bicuspid=mitral)
A distended vessel that becomes weak describes an
Aneurysm
Where does a Berry aneurysm occur
Circle of Willis
berry aneurysms will cause
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
What condition is highly associated with dissecting aneurysms
Marfans syndrome
Longitudinal tearing of the aorta is classified as
Dissecting aneurysm
Ur pt is a smoker, they suddenly have extreme low back pain, a thready pulse and is in hypovolemic shock - what condition is likely>?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
What is the most common benign heart tumor
Myxoma
What is Tetralogy of Fallot?
DRIP
Dextroposition of aorta, Right ventricle hypertrophy, interventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis
Rheumatic fever commonly attacks what part of the heart
Mitral valve
Treponema pallidum (syphillis) often targets what part of the heart
Aortic valve
What is vaso vasorum
Blood vessels that irrigates other blood vessels
What vessels have the largest total cross sectional and surface area
Capillaries
Normal blood pH
7.35-7.45
Most common cause of congestive heart failure
Essential hypertension (blood backs up into left ventricle causing left side heart failure)
What is the common early sign of congestive heart failure
Exertional dyspnea (due to fluid backing up into lungs)
What is orthopnea
Cannot breath while lying down
Where does fluid collect in congestive heart failure
Costodiaphragmatic recess (lowest gravity)
Typically congestive heart failure will effect what side of the heart first
Left
What is a sign of right sided heart failure?
jugular vein distention/pulsation
Blood backing up into the IVC will go into
Legs and liver
What is ascites
Fluid collects in abdomen
What is the most common cause of liver failure
Alcoholism
Mallory bodies are a sign of
Alcohol-induced hepatitis
What is Mallory-Weiss syndrome?
Upper GI tearing from forceful vomiting (associated with alcoholism)
What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Memory disorder from Vit B1 deficiency (associated with alcoholism)
Alcohol impairs the body from getting what vitamin
B1 Thiamine
What is Bell Magende Laws of Physiology?
anterior spinal roots are motor, posterior are sensory
reflex triggered to prevent over-inflation of the lungs. stretch receptors present in the smooth muscle of the airways respond to excessive stretching of the lung during large inspirations.
Hering Breuer
The Hering Breuer reflex limits respiratory excursion via what nerve
Vagus
What law states that the tension in arteries will be proportional to the radius of the vessel
Lapalce's Law for arteries
What is Laplace's law for the heart
Ventricular pressure depends on muscle tension, size, and shape of heart
What is Starling's law of the heart?
Cardiac output is equal to venous return
What is the Haldane Effect
The lungs release CO2 from carboxyhemoglobin, and bind oxygen to hemoglobin (occurs in lungs)
What is the Bohr effect
Metabolizing tissues release oxygen from oxyhemoglobin, and uptake carbon dioxide to form carboxyhemoglobin (occurs in tissues)
What are the two properties of hemoglobin
Bohr effect (right shift) and Haldane effect (left shift)
The haldene effect occirs in the lungs when the pH is _____- (higher or lower?)
Higher (more basic)
The Bohr effect occurs in the tissues when the pH is _____- (higher or lower?)
Lower (more acidic)
An increase in temperature and a decrease in pH will have what effect on the oxyhemoglobin curve
Right shift (Bohr effect) - release more oxygen into tissues
IF the temperature is decreasing and the pH is becoming more basic, what is the effect on the oxyhemoglobin curve
Left shift (Haldene effect) - More oxygen will bind to hemoglobin in the lungs
what starts the breakdown of starch?
ptyalin (salivary amylase)
What starts the breakdown of fats in the mouth
Sublingual lipase
What cells produce gastrin
G cells in pyloric gland
Functions of gastrin
Increases gastric secretions, motility and mucous
What cell type produces pepsinogen
Chief cells
What types of cells are found in the gastric glands
Parietal (oxyntic) cells and chief (peptic) cells
What do parietal cells produce
HCl and intrinsic factor
What is intrinsic factor used for
B12 resorption in terminal ileum
What are the mucous producing cells in the small intestine
Goblet cells
Function of Brunner's glands
Secretes alkaline fluid to protect mucosa from stomachs acidic contents
Where is cholecystokinin (CCK) secreted?
Duodenum
What causes the production of pancreatic amylase and lipase
Release of cholecystokinin
Function of lactase
Breakdown lactose into glucose and galactose
What is the function of maltase
Breakdown maltose into glucose and glucose
Cholecystokinin will close the _________ sphincter in response to liquids
Pyloric
Function of trypsinogen
Breakdown protein
What causes the production of trypsinogen
Cholecystokinin
Cholecystokinin inhibits what in the stomach
Gastrin
Function of micelles
Carry digested fat to the lymphatics via chylomircron
Describe where digestion occurs for long vs medium vs small chain fatty acids
Long- lymphatics, medium - portal system OR lymphatics, short - portal system into liver
What is the function of enterogastrone
Helps close pyloric sphincter in response to lipids
What converts trypsinogen to trypsin?
enterokinase
What 3 things are activated by trypsin
Chymotrypsinogen, proteolastsase, and carboxypolypeptide