mcb3023 exam 4

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77 Terms

1
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When the diet of a ruminant is drastically changed from grass to a starch rich diet, the ruminant may become very ill or die because

of the production of large amounts of acid, resulting in acidosis

2
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Lichens contain

at least one fungal heterotrophic partner and at least one phototrophic partner

3
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The bacterial group that is responsible for root nodule formation in legumes is

Rhizobia

4
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Humans have a

colonic fermentation

5
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Leghemoglobin produced by plants is important for

oxygen supply

6
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Which of these contains zooxanthellae as photosynthetic symbionts?

corals

7
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How do termites obtain nitrogen in their diet?

From nitrogen fixing bacteria in their gut.

8
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These genes are important for root nodule formation

nod

9
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The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are

methanogens

10
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What is an endophyte?

a symbiont that lives inside plant cells

11
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What is the human microbiome composed of?

all microbes that live on or within the human body

12
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What are Zooxanthellae?

photosynthetic symbionts of corals

13
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Most primary endosymbionts of insects have all these in common, EXCEPT

nitrogen fixation genes

14
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An example of a rumen fermenter is the

sheep

15
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Many of the rumen bacteria specialize in the breakdown of these macromolecules

cellulose polymers

16
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Which genes are encoding for subunits of nitrogenase, the main enzyme for nitrogen fixation?

nif genes

17
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What is the e- donor for bacterial symbionts of tubeworms at hydrothermal vents?

H2S

18
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Which of these is characteristic of the enzyme nitrogenase?

it is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen

19
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Camels have a

rumen fermentation

20
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Herbivores mostly require microorganisms to help them with the digestion of this compound

cellulose

21
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Which of these is true of a mutualistic relationship?

both organisms benefit

22
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How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?

From mother to offspring

23
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The Ebola virus is transmitted by a ____ mechanism

zoonotic

24
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This is an example of a virus known to undergo evolutionary change by reassortment of genetic elements:

influenza virus

25
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Antibodies are:

produced by B cells

26
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Some T cells (T lymphocytes):

induce necrosis of cells

27
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In the CRISPR-Cas System, which component is responsible for phage destruction?

cRNA subunits

28
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Which is an example of innate immunity?

The removal of a bacterial cell in the lungs by a resident macrophage

29
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Which cells are destroyed by hemolysins?

red blood cells

30
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LPS in Gram-negative contain

an O-antigen

31
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Which one of the following statements is NOT one of Koch's postulates?

identify and characterize endotoxins from the isolated microbe

32
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Which is studied in the field of epidemiology?

the spread patterns of all diseases

33
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Name the type of viral infection in which the viral genome is present in infected cells but the virus only replicates sporadically

latent

34
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Which of these could be accomplished with an ELISA?

detection of specific antibodies in serum

35
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Pathogenicity islands are blocks of genes on the bacterial chromosomes that most likely arose from this process

horizontal gene transfer

36
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The emergence of HIV/AIDS disease was most likely a result of:

a rare zoonotic transfer of a retrovirus strain to humans

37
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Pathogenic E. coli strain O157:H7 evolved from a non=pathogenic strain as a result of this genetic change

the acquisition of virulence genes via horizontal gene transfer

38
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The term describing a clustering of virulence genes on the chromosome of a pathogenic microbe is:

pathogenicity island

39
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Which of these results in immunological memory?

the adaptive immune response

40
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Which one of the following is NOT a nonspecific natural defense barrier against microbial invasion?

antibodies produced from B lymphocytes

41
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What is the primary effect of microbial lipopolysaccharides (LPS) on the host?

Triggers an intense inflammatory response

42
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Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins. What does the term "A-B" refer to?

Their enzymatically active subunit and their cell-binding subunit.

43
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The Tir/Intimin system of pathogenic E. coli is used for

attachment to host cells

44
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Which of these is NOT a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer?

inherited DNA from mother cell to daughter cell

45
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The term for properties of pathogens that aid in causing disease is:

virulence factors

46
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Bacteria can 'steal' iron from host cells through their production of:

siderophores

47
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Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus. This is referred to as _____________ .

antigenic shift

48
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What are the two main functions of B cells?

Activation of helper T cells and antibody production.

49
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What is the prevalence rate of a disease?

The number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population.

50
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Name the type of viral infection in which the viral genome is present in infected cells but the virus only replicates sporadically.

latent

51
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Why do RNA viruses have a high mutation rate?

Their RNA-dependent RNA polymerases lack a proofreading function.

52
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All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT:

cellulase?

53
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Which of these would lead to a recombination of genetic elements in viruses?

Co-infection of a cell by two different strains of the virus.

54
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Exogenous antigen is usually taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis, processed, and presented to T cells on their surface by these:

MHC molecules

55
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The process of point mutational change in the surface proteins of viruses is an example of:

antigenic drift

56
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All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT:

constriction of blood vessels.

57
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The term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period is:

incidence rate

58
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Rhinovirus is a cause of the common cold. What type of infection does it usually cause?

acute

59
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Cytolysins:

form pores or destroy plasma membranes

60
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These are cells of the innate immune system:

macrophages

61
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In the CRISPR-Cas system, which component is responsible for the bacterial equivalent of "immune memory"?

CRISPR Locus

62
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What does a high case-to-infection ratio (CI) indicate?

That most people infected by the pathogen will develop the disease.

63
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In order to cause a fast spreading disease, successful infectious pathogens must be able to do ALL of the following EXCEPT:

kill the host.

64
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Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following?

evade host defenses

65
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An attachment structure which aids in overcoming the charge repulsion between host/microbe cells is:

Fimbriae

66
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Which of these is true of an endemic disease?

It is constantly present in a given population.

67
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For most pathogenic bacteria, what is the first step it takes to facilitate entry into its host?

attachment

68
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Penicillin was discovered by:

Alexander Fleming

69
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The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a(an)

attenuated vaccine

70
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If ninety percent of a population is immune to a particular disease they protect the susceptible ten percent by a concept known as:

herd immunity.

71
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All of the following are approaches used to help reduce the incidence of antimicrobial drug resistance EXCEPT

the use of very high concentrations of the drug

72
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The best way to prevent a cholera epidemic is

proper drinking water treatment

73
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Mutational resistance to an antimicrobial drug usually occurs ...

spontaneously in the absence of the drug.

74
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Which one of the following is NOT a common mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?

incorporation of the drug into cell material

75
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Subunit vaccines are generally considered safer than attenuated vaccines because

attenuated vaccines may permit viral growth and possible mutation.

76
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Attenuated vaccines are generally more effective than subunit vaccines because:

attenuated vaccines may permit viral growth with enhanced disease mimicry

77
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The targets for common groups of antibiotics for bacteria are all EXCEPT

LPS biosynthesis