DH 375: Preclinical Quiz

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Last updated 7:30 PM on 8/24/26
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91 Terms

1
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What items are inside the center counter cabinet behind units 2 and 3?

  • First aid kit

  • AED

  • Portable oxygen

  • PT pillows


2
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What items are inside the center counter cabinet behind units 3 and 4?

  • Chemical spill kit

  • Mercury spill kit


3
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What items are inside the center counter cabinet behind units 8 and 9?

  • Epipen (adult and child)

  • CPR mask

  • Thermometers

  • Probe covers

  • Cold pack

  • BP cuff (large adult)

  • Medical first aid (w/ Narcan)

  • Emergency blanket


4
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Where is the UHM chemical hygiene plan found?

  • Next to unit 6

  • On bookshelf

  • Hazard communication file


5
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Where do you find the SDS for the disinfectant in the UHDH clinic?

  • Next to unit 6

  • On bookshelf


6
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Where is the Epipen kept?

  • Center counter cabinet

  • Behind units 8&9


7
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Where is the main oxygen tank?

  • By unit 5

  • Near window


8
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Where is the fire extinguisher in the clinic?

  • Wall between sterilization and unit 14


9
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How many eye wash stations are there in the clinic?

  • 3

  • Between units 1 and 10

  • Outside unit 17

  • Sterilization


10
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If you get something in your eyes, how long should you flush them?

  • 15 minutes


11
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If there is an emergency in the clinic, what phone # do you call?

  • 66911


12
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If we need to vacate Hemenway Hall where do we go?

  • Depends where emergency situation is located

  • Parking lot (ASB)

  • Courtyard across the street


13
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Where is the Sharps container kept?

  • Under sink in sterilization

  • Cabinet 43


14
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What is discarded in the sharps container?

  • Needles

  • Biological indicator

  • Carpules

  • Broken instruments

  • Blades


15
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Where is the main biohazard bag kept?

  • Next to sharps

  • Under sink in sterilization


16
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The biohazard bag is full. What do you do?

  • Check if there is anything that does not belong inside

  • Roll bag so it will fit in TUTT without touching walls

  • Remove top rack of TUTT

  • Indicator tape and leave bag a little open to sterilize

  • NO INSTRUMENTS

  • Biological indicator

  • Sterilize for 1 hour, 250°

  • Put in gray trash bag when done

  • Process BI

  • Leave bag in TUTT until BI processed


17
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When is the sharps container full?

When it reaches the dotted line

18
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What do you do once sharps is full?

• Sterilize lay it flat in Tutt with lid slightly open

• Indicator tape and BI

• Sterilize in tutt 250°, 1 hr

• Process BI

• Close lid after sterilization

• Notify faculty to call someone to pick it up at closet near compressor in hallway

• Place new container

19
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Where can you find a new sharps container?

Under TUTT II

20
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How long are sterilization pouches good for if they weren’t compromised?

1 year

21
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What disinfectant is used in the UHDH clinic?

  • Optim 1

  • Leave wet for 1 minute for effectiveness


22
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What is the active ingredient in Optim 1?

• Hydrogen peroxide

23
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How long are instruments processed in the ultrasonic cleaner?

20 minutes


24
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What is the ICX used for?

Unit water lines

25
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How often do we use a new ICX tablet?

  • When water bottle needs to be refilled

  • Inside cavitron reservoirs


26
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Where are ICX tablets found?

  • Inside sterilization cabinet #35


27
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Where are the biological indicators kept?

  • In fridge behind unit #11

  • 3 biological indicators are used: one for each TUTT + a control (pink)


28
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How often/when are biological indicators processed?

  • 1x a week

  • When cleaning or servicing TUTT


29
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How often do we process a Class V integrator?

  • Every load

  • When sterilizing sharps and biohazard bag


30
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Where are the medical clearance forms?

  • Behind unit 12

  • Must be duplicated for PT copy


31
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Why is the red star stamp used and where is it placed?

  • Medical contraindications for treatment

  • Pre-med (antibiotic)

  • Allergy

  • Specific medications

  • Hypertension

  • @ right middle of page


32
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How long am i supposed to run water lines?

  • 2 minutes morning

  • 30 seconds between PTs


33
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What type of sterilizer is used in UHDH?

Autoclave

34
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What time and temperature are instruments processed?

  • 45 minutes

  • 273 degrees F


35
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What do you do if unit is not working?

Notify faculty

36
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What happens if chemical indicator on pouches fail?

  • Re bag instruments

  • Re sterilize


37
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What happens if class V indicator fails?

  • Re bag and re sterilize everything


38
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What is the antibiotic regimen before procedure?

  • Amoxicillin

  • 2g (adults)

    • 50 mg/kg (children)

  • 30-60 minutes before procedure


39
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What is the antibiotic regimen for patients allergic to penicillin or ampicillin and unable to take oral medication?

  • Cefazolin or ceftriaxone

  • 1g IM or IV (adults)

    • 50 mg/kg IM or IV

  • 30 to 60 min before procedure


40
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TRUE OR FALSE: Clindamycin is recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis for a dental procedure?

  • FALSE

  • It is NO longer recommended


41
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Describe the after five gracey curettes?

  • Designed for instrumentation in deeper perio pockets

  • Elongated terminal shank (3mm)

  • Blade thinned by 10% to ease gingival insertions and reduce tissue distention

  • Increased crown clearance


42
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Describe the mini five gracey curettes

  • Elongated terminal shank (3mm)

  • Thinned blades (10%)

  • 50% SHORTER blade = access smaller roots, narrow pockets, furcations, developmental groves


43
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What is a flexible shank used for?

  • Detection of subgingival calculus

  • Removal of fine calculus

  • Provides best tactile sensation


44
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What is the moderately flexible shank used for?

  • Removal of moderate or light calculus

  • Good level of tactile sensation


45
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What is the rigid shank used for?

  • Removal of HEAVY calculus deposits

  • Limited tactile sensation


46
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What is the extra rigid shank used for?

  • Removal of very TENACIOUS calculus

  • Limited tactile sensation


47
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What is the Gracey 1 and 2 used for?

Anterior teeth: all tooth surfaces

48
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What is the gracey 3 and 4 used for?

Anterior teeth: all tooth surfaces

49
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What is the gracey 5 and 6 used for?

  • Anterior teeth: all tooth surfaces

  • Premolar teeth: all tooth surfaces

  • Molar teeth: facial, lingual, mesial


50
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What is the gracey 7 and 8 used for?

  • Anterior teeth all tooth surfaces

  • Premolar teeth: all tooth surfaces

  • Molar teeth: facial, lingual, and mesial


51
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What is the gracey 9 and 10 used for?

  • Anterior teeth all tooth surfaces

  • Premolar teeth: all tooth surfaces

  • Molar teeth: facial, lingual, and mesial


52
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What is the gracey 11 and 12 used for?

  • Anterior teeth: mesial and distal surfaces

  • Posterior teeth: mesial surfaces ONLY

  • Posterior teeth: facial, lingual, mesial


53
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What is the gracey 13 and 14 used for?

  • Anterior teeth: mesial and distal surfaces

  • Posterior teeth: distal surfaces


54
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What is the gracey 15 and 16 used for?

  • Posterior teeth: facial, lingual, and mesial


55
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What is the gracey 17 and 18 used for?

  • Posterior teeth: distal surfaces


56
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How is CAL calculated?

  • Probing depth + gingival margin (recession) level

  • EX:

    • Probing = 4 mm

    • Gingival margin level = +2 mm

    • CAL = 6 mm


57
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Which ASA class is a patient if a patient has had a heart attack 2 months ago?

ASA IV

58
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What is the optimal fluoride concentration for community water systems?

0.7 mg/L

59
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What is another name for Focused Spray PowerLINE 3?

Beaver Tail

60
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What does CAMBRA stand for?

Caries management by risk assessment

61
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Which medication is the 2nd most common medication of 2024?

Eliquis (Apixaban)

62
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What is the maximum dose of epinephrine for a healthy patient?

0.2 mg

63
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What are the stages of the DH care plan?

  • Assess

  • Diagnose

  • Plan

  • Implement

  • Evaluate


64
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Which autoimmune condition qualifies for 2 additional cleanings per year?

Sjogren’s syndrome

65
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What is phase I of dental treatment?

Non-surgical therapy

66
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What are 2 components of evidence based decision making?

  • Scientific evidence

  • Clinical/PT circumstances

  • PT preferences or values

  • Experience and judgement


67
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What is a common name for NaHCO3?

Sodium Bicarbonate

68
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What does ACP stand for?

Amorphous calcium phosphate

69
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For hand scalers, what type of SHANK is indicated for deeper subgingival calculus removal?

Extended shank

70
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A PT is moving out of the state and is requesting their dental records. Providing the PT with their records upholds which ethical principle?

Autonomy

71
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What does PHI stand for?

Protected health information

72
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How often is routine biological monitoring required?

1x a week or anytime TUTTS are cleaned/serviced

73
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If a processed BI is positive, what must you do?

  • Re-wrap and re-sterilize everything inside load

  • Run BI until you get 3 negatives in a row


74
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What is the shelf life of sterilized pouches if not compromised?

1 year

75
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What is the gold standard procedure of NSPT?

SRP

76
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A patient comes in for their dental appointment with a lesion. When should this patient be seen for a follow-up appointment?

2 weeks

77
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You are evaluating a panoramic radiograph. The anterior teeth appear blurry and narrow. What was the cause of this?

Chin is too anterior

78
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What is the name of the radiolucent artifact created when the PT does not place their tongue against the palate during exposure?

Palatoglossal air space

79
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You administered 2 ½ carpules of lidocaine. How many mg did you administer?

85 mg

80
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You exposed 4 BWS. You have 4 technique errors. Can you pass this series?

NO


81
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What is a cavitated lesion?

Loss of structure

82
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What is KNO3?

Potassium nitrate

83
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What percent of KNO3 is commonly found in tooth pastes?

5%

84
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TRUE OR FALSE: When using multiple ultrasonic inserts, curved slim perio inserts should be used LAST?

TRUE

85
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SofTip ultrasonic inserts are meant to be used at?

Low power

86
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Which of the following is the LEAST powerful part of the working end of the ultrasonic insert?

  • Concave face

  • Convex back

  • Lateral surfaces


Lateral surfaces

87
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Hand scalers with complex shanks are meant to be used at?

Posterior teeth

88
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For which patient is maintenance appropriate vs. recall?

Perio patients

89
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CAL is the distance from ____ to ____?

  • CEJ

  • Base of sulcus


90
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What is defined as “abnormal probing depth without bone loss/loss of attachment”?

Pseudopocket

91
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For the DH process, what step occurs immediately after assessment?

Diagnosis