MODULE 6 (meta)

1. In one of the typhoon evacuation centers, an outbreak of sepsis suspected to be caused by Staphylococcus aureus occurred. One of the pharmacists in the health sector volunteer group was called upon to assist in the investigation.

Where would be the most likely reservoir of the organism in the normal flora?

A. Throat

B. Nose

C. Colon

D. Genitalia

B

2. What is the route of transmission of monkeypox?

i. Direct contact with monkeypox rash, scabs, or body fluids from a person with monkeypox.

ii. Touching objects, fabrics (clothing, bedding, or towels), and surfaces that have been used by someone with monkeypox.

iii. Contact with respiratory secretions

iv. Mother to developing fetus

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II

D. I, II, III, and IV

D

3. What is the 6th Millennium Developmental Goal?

A. Improve maternal Health

B. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

C. Combat HIV/AIDs, malaria and other diseases

D. Promote gender equality and empower women

C

4. Which of the following statements are true as results of contamination of biological products, which can compromise medication or treatment?

I. Loss of potency due to degradation

II. Increase level of bacterial endotoxin III. Increase medication cost

IV. Shortage of essential drug Product

A. I, II, & III

B. I, II, III, & IV

C. II, III & IV

D. I,II&IV

D

5. Which of the following statements will BEST describe Epidemiology as a core of Public Health service?

A. Study of occurrence of disease and calamities

B. Study of development of policies and plans at the community level

C. Study of distribution and determination of diseases and disability on patient level

D. Study of distribution and determinants of disease and disability at the population level

D

6. Which of the following has been identified by DOH as the most common diseases acquired through ingestion of contaminated drinking water in the Philippines for the past two years?

I. Typhoid fever

II. Dengue

III. Cholera

A. II, III

B. I,II

C. I, II, III

D. I, III

D

7. Methicillin- resistant Staph aureus (MRSA) is a group of Staphylococcus aureus strains identified as a major cause of health care infections (HCAIs) such as which of the following?

I. Wound and soft tissue infection

II. Catheter associated UTI

III. Colitis

IV. Ventilator Associated Pneumonia

A. I, II, IV

B. I, II, III, IV

C. I, II, III

D. II, III, IV

A

8. What is the typical range of acceptance criteria for assay results as found in the labeled claim?

A. 90-110%

B. 85-115%

C. 75-125%

D. 95-105%

A

9. Which of the following microorganisms, do you expect to be the MOST resistant to high temperatures?

I. Staphylococcus aureus

II. Clostridium botulinum

III. Bacillus subtilis

IV. Escherichia coli

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. All of the above

C

10. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the formulation until its biological or chemical activity is no less than how many percent of the labeled potency?

A. 85%

B. 95%

C. 80%

D. 90%

D

11. What chemical reaction is involved during an analysis wherein there occur a change of valence of reacting substances?

A. Oxidation- reduction

B. Precipitation

C. Neutralization

D. Complexation

A

12. In microbial assay of antibiotics, what organism is used for penicillin G?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Bacillus subtilis

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B

13. Which among the following laws is a fundamental law of fluorometry in the analysis of drugs?

A. Law of mass action

B. Boyle's law

C. Beer's law

D. Newton's law

C

14. Which type of chemical analysis measures percentage content of the component present in a given sample?

A. Quantitative method

B. Qualitative method

C. Proximate method

D. Gravimetric method

A

15. Which of the following are identified as functions of quality control as a major component of CGMP?

I. Sampling, specifications and testing

II. Documentation and Release Control III. Audit

IV. Stock control

A. I, II, & III

B. I, II, III, & IV

C. I,II&IV

D. II, III & IV

C

16. Functions of Quality Control include the following, EXCEPT _________.

A. Analytical control

B. Inspection control

C. Stock control

D. Audit

D

17. Which of the following control function is not a quality control (QC) function?

A. In-process analysis

B. Labeling and packing materials

C. Inventory control

D. Inspection of containers

C

18. In qualitative analysis where would adsorption indicators be used?

A. Complexation reaction

B. Volumetric precipitation

C. Acidimetry

D. Alkalimetry

B

19. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of _____.

A. Oil

B. Volatile content

C. Inorganic matter

D. Carbon

C

20. In the drugstore when a customer would ask a pharmacist, what is a disinfectant; which of the following is the best statement as answer?

A. A chemical agent that kills both vegetative forms and spores of pathogens

B. A chemical agent that eradicates microorganisms

C. A chemical agent that kills vegetative forms of pathogens but not spores

D. A substance that serves as a cleansing agent

B

21. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:

A. Potassium Bitartrate

B. Sodium oxalate

C. Sodium carbonate anhydrous

D. Sodium tartrate

D

22. Which among the following list of indicators is NOT used in acid based titrations?

A. Methyl red

B. Ferric alum

C. Phenolphthalein

D. Methyl orange

B

23. Public health activities of pharmacist on a micro level would include which of the following

I.Educating the public on health and medication

II.Research and development of health policies for the community

III.Counseling patients about chronic conditions

IV.Drug information services and publication of health promotions

A. I, III

B. I, III, IV

C. I,II

D. I, II, III

A

24. Choose the solvent that is used in azeotropic method of water analysis?

A. Alcohol

B. Xylene

C. Ethylene glycol

D. Acetone

B

25. When an alkaloid is subjected to titration ultimate assay method, what are possible types of titration based on the number of volumetric solutions?

A. Direct titration and blank titration

B. Direct and residual titration

C. Back and blank titration

D. Residual and back titration

B

26. What is the acid necessary for permanganate titrations?

A. Nitric acid

B. Hydrochloric acid

C. Acetic acid

D. Sulfuric acid

D

27. What quantitative measure would the iodine value of an oil express?

A. Unsaponifiable matter

B. Phenol content

C. Unsaturated fatty acids

D. Saturated fatty acids

C

28. Which of the following are the most basic principles upon which chromatographic separations take place?

I. Absorption

II. Ion-exchange

III. Adsorption

IV. Partition coefficient

A. I, II, III, & IV

B. II, III & IV

C. I,II&III

D. I,II&IV

B

29. Which of the following risk assessment methods are currently to reduce pyrogen particles and microbial contamination during manufacture of pharmaceutical products?

I. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points (HACCP)

II. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)

III. Force Field Analysis (FFA)

IV. IV. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

A. II and IV

B. I and IV

C. I and II

D. I, II and IV

D

30. Which of the following terms to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR regions?

A. Chromopore

B. Carbonyl

C. Thiol

D. nitrile

A

31. Promoting the "four o'clock habit", is all about the DOH program for prevention and control of which of the following disease?

A. Malaria

B. Malnutrition

C. Tuberculosis

D. Dengue

D

32. Which of the following type of chromatographic analysis utilizes cellulose of filter paper as the adsorbent?

A. Paper chromatography

B. Gas chromatography

C. Thin layer chromatography

D. Column chromatography

A

33. Which of the following are components of a blank titration analysis?

I. Solvent

II. Reagent

III. Indicator

IV. Analyte

A. I, II, III, & IV

B. I,II&IV

C. II, III & IV

D. I,II&III

D

34. The crude fiber of a drug is usually composed of _____.

A. Cellulose

B. Phytosterol

C. Fixed oils

D. cholesterol

A

35. The United States Pharmacopeia(USP) content uniformity test is used to ensure which quality?

A. Bioequivalence

B. Purity

C. Potency

D. Toxicity

C

36. What does the principle of total quality mean in pharmaceutical preparations?

A. Production is responsible for quality

B. Use of state-of-the-art equipment

C. Quality is everybody business

D. Quality combines with strict adherence to standards

C

37. Which of the following descriptors represents the index that measures the number of individuals who have died within a susceptible population during a specific period because of a particular disease?

A. Prevalence rate

B. Virulence

C. Mortality rate

D. Morbidity rate

C

38. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in hand cream?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. Coliforms

C. Klebsiella pneumonia

D. Clostridium tetani

C

39. Good manufacturing practice(GMP) as part of quality assurance simply means ________.

A. All records and documentation must be in place.

B. Environmental cleanliness and hygiene must be observed.

C. Personnel must be properly trained

D. It is about getting things right all along the time

D

40. In methods of analysis which of the following refers ability of the procedure to provide analytical results of acceptable accuracy and precision under a variety of conditions

A. Precision

B. Accuracy

C. Robustness

D. specificity

C

41. Which among statements BEST describe qualification as a major component of quality assurance?

A. Action of proving that any premises systems and items of equipment work correctly and actually lead to expected results.

B. Involves evaluation of past experiences of production showing that everything is unchanged.

C. Documented verification that the system or subsystem preform as intended of its overall anticipated operating range.

D. A list of detailed requirements with which the materials used or products obtained during manufacture have to conform.

A

42. What is used in assessing efficiency of HEPA filter?

A. Rodac plate test

B. Bubble point test

C. Powdered glass test

D. DOP test

D

43. Which of the following processes refers to changing optical active compound to a non-optically active substance?

A. Epimerization

B. Diazotization

C. Racemization

D. Complexation

C

44. For quality control assays are periodically validated for following characteristics, EXCEPT____.

A. Robustness and stability

B. Marketability and affordability

C. Specificity and range

D. Accuracy and precision

B

45. Quality Assessment tools for non-sterile dosage forms specific for suppositories, troches, lozenges include?

I. Weight and Weight variations

II. Color of preparation

III. Clarity (Visual)

IV. Appearance, feel

A. I,II&III

B. I, II, III, & IV

C. I,III&IV

D. II, & IV only

B

46. Which of the following are major contributors of health care associated infections?

I. Failure of health care personnel to follow hand washing protocols

II. Smoking and alcoholism

III. Increased number of immune compromised patients

A. I, III

B. I,II

C. II, III

D. I, II, III

A

47. Which of the following are examples of adventitious agents found to be possible contaminants of biological products?

I. Ants

II. Fungi

III. Bacteria

IV. Viruses

A. I,II&III

B. I, II, III, & IV

C. I,II&IV

D. II, III & IV

D

48. Which of the following refers to a list of test references which are critical quality standards for purity and safety of pharmaceutical products?

A. Validation characteristics

B. Descriptions

C. Specifications

D. Assay

C

49. What constitutes the mobile phase used in thin layer chromatography (TLC)?

A. Alumina

B. Cellulose

C. Aqueous salt solution

D. Silica gel

C

50. Which of the following chemical interactions is recognized as a major cause for product instability?

A. Acetylation

B. Deamination

C. Decarboxylation

D. Oxidation-Reduction

D

51. The analyst computation of loss on drying test is 0.08% above the specified maximum limit. Determine the total weight loss if the retained sample weight is 9.374 g. Product monograph allow only a 1.5%.

A. 0.140 g

B. 0.150 g

C. 0.0007 g

D. 0.48 g

B

52. What is the range of heating glassware in order to destroys pyrogens?

A. 180 degrees for 4minutes

B. 100 degrees for an hour

C. 250 degrees for 45 seconds

D. 650 degrees for 60 seconds

D

53. In the assay of Dextran injection where in the activity assayed is the absorption of iron, what is the test animal used?

A. Rabbit

B. Mice

C. Guinea pig

D. Tissue culture

A

54. The following are units of measurement generally used in spectrometry, EXCEPT___.

A. Milliliter

B. Photometer

C. Micrometer

D. Nanometer

B

55. Which of the following is a process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus

A. Sporulation

B. Conjugation

C. Transformation

D. Transduction

D

56. Which of the following is the formation of dormant form of bacteria when conditions are inhospitable?

A. Mutation

B. Polymorphism

C. Germination

D. Sporulation

D

57. The method of assay for sulfonamidesis:

A. Kjeldahl method

B. Diazotization method

C. Gravimetric analysis

D. Titrimetric analysis

B

58. Regarding Pasteur's experiment with the S-neckflask, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT _____.

A. All microorganisms were killed before beginning.

B. There was food source involved.

C. There was absence of air.

D. Any possibility of contamination was removed.

C

59. The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to________.

A. Can't tell

B. Increase

C. Decrease

D. Stay the same

B

60. Which of the following is not gram-positive?

A. Corynebacterium

B. Bacillus

C. Staphylococcus

D. Treponema

D

61. Which of the following lacks a cell wall?

A. Mycoplasma

B. Mycobacterium

C. Clostridium

D. Nocardia

A

62. Which of the following is the identified cause of Hansen's disease?

A. Mycoplasma leprae

B. Mycobacterium leprae

C. Mycobacterium bovis

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B

63. The indicator used in permanganate titrations:

A. Phenolphthalein

B. Hydroxynapthol blue

C. Starch TS

D. Potassium permanganate

D

64. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:

A. Nucleic acids/chitin/peptidoglycans

B. Carbohydrates/amino acids/lipids

C. Carbohydrates/nucleic acids/steroids

D. Lipids/polysaccharides/lactoferrin

B

65. How is avian flu or bird flu transmitted?

A. Direct or indirect contact with infected birds

B. Inhalation of contaminated aerosols

C. Animal bites viz; clogs, cats

D. Mosquito bites

A

66. Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen for compromised systems?

A. Trichomoniasis

B. Candidiasis

C. Gonorrhea

D. Genital herpes

B

67. Which of the following substances can sterilize?

A. Alcohols

B. Chlorine

C. Soap

D. Ethylene oxide

D

68. Which of the following substances is the LEAST effective antimicrobial agent?

A. Iodine

B. Cationic detergents

C. Soap

D. Phenolics

C

69. A process where in the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard solution of sodium thiosulfate:

A. Cerimetry

B. Iodimetry

C. Diazotization method

D. Iodometry

D

70. Causative agent of typhoid fever is______.

A. Salmonella

B. Aspergillus

C. Shigella

D. Rickettsia typhi

A

71. In gram staining, a bacterial cell that will stain pink to red, the specimen will be labeled as___.

A. Gram negative

B. Pink is not an observed color in gram stain

C. Gram positive

D. Gram variable

A

72. Using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of sample, the following data were obtained:

Absorbance of standard solution = 0.225 Absorbance of sample solution = 0.214 Concentration of Std solution =17.7 μg

A. 18.6μg

B. 19.0 μg

C. 16.8 μg

D. 16.9 μg

C

73. Leptospirosis can commonly be obtained in infected_____

A. Flood waters

B. Toxins in drugs

C. Air droplets

D. Blood transfusion

A

74. Malic acid present in cherry juice may be determined by:

A. Direct Permanganometry

B. Indirect Permanganometry

C. Residual Permanganometry

D. Iodimetry`

B

75. Which of the following is a hybrid plasmid used as cloning vector in genetic engineering for large pieces of DNA?

A. Cosmids

B. Cos gene

C. Fosmids

D. Lambda phage

A

76. Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-soap; 2-Anionic detergent; 3-cationic detergent

A. 1,2,3

B. 3,2,1

C. 2,3,1

D. 3,1,2

B

77. LAL test is applicable in the determination of:

A. Microorganism

B. Pyrogens

C. Chemical impurities

D. All of these

E. None of thes

B

78. Which causes athlete's foot?

A. Tinea capitis

B. Tinea corporis

C. Tinea pedis

D. Tinea cruces

C

79. The solvents for fats and fixed oils

A. H2O

B. N-hexane

C. 80% ethanol

D. 95% ethyl alcohol

B

80. Which of the following microorganisms are used as probiotics?

I. Lactobacillus spp

II. Bacillus fumidus

III. Bifidobacteria

A. I

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. II

C

81. Which of the following are identified worldwide as 'ESKAPE' pathogen's

I. Enterococcus faecium

II. Acinetobacter baumanii

III. Candida albicans

IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A. I, II, III, & IV

B. I,II&III

C. II, III & IV

D. I,II&IV

D

82. Content uniformity is to be performed for all the tablets whose active ingredient is:

A. 50 mg or less

B. Less than 100 mg

C. 50mg to 100 mg

D. More than 50 mg

A

83. Which type of industrial hazard includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration?

A. Physical

B. Chemical

C. Local

D. Biological

A

84. Which is measured by the biochemical oxygen demand?

A. The amount of oxygen present in water sample

B. The number of bacteria present in a water sample

C. The amount of organic matter present in a water sample

D. The amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample

C

85. Which component of milk has antibodies?

A. Lactose

B. Cream of milk

C. Colostrum

D. fructose

C

86. Choose the reservoir for chicken pox infection.

A. Pigs

B. Humans

C. Chicken

D. Cattles

B

87. Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.2100g if 24.15 mL and 12.00mL of 0.1100 N sodium thiosulfate solution which are required for blank and residual titrations respectively.

A. 80.5%

B. 80.6%

C. 80.7%

D. 80.8%

D

88. Which of the following is common route of transmission for COVID-19, SARS and common cold?

A. Needlestick injury

B. Handshake

C. Animal bites

D. Contact with contaminated urine

B

89. Theories and models used in health promotion programs and interventions include which of the following?

I. Ecological model

II. Health belief model

III. Stages of change model

A. I, III

B. II, III

C. I,II

D. I, II, III

D

90. These diseases are Sexually Transmitted Infections, EXCEPT_______.

A. Gonorrhea

B. AIDS

C. Syphilis

D. Hepatitis A

D

91. The following are zoonotic diseases, EXCEPT___.

A. Anthrax

B. Mumps

C. Brucellosis

D. leptospirosis

B

92. Which of the following drugs should be avoided for patients with dengue hemorrhagic fever?

A. Insulin

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Aspirin

D. Paracetamol

C

93. Public health activities for pharmacists at a micro level include the following.

I. Educating patients and clients on wellness

II. Research and development of health policies for the community

III. Counseling patients about chronic conditions

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, III

D. I,II

B

94. Symptoms of the severe disease known as Ebola include the following, EXCEPT____.

A. Frequent urination

B. Muscle pain and weakness

C. Fever and severe headache

D. Diarrhea and vomiting

A

95. Find the acid number of a rosin sample weighing 1.100g which required 28.00mL of 0.1100 N NaOH to bring about the end point.

A. 157.0

B. 157.1

C. 157.2

D. 157.3

B

96. What is the component of starch that reacts with iodine to form the intensely blue-colored solution?

A. Alpha-amylose

B. Beta-amylose

C. Amylopectin

D. Both A and B

B

97. The following pharmaceutica lexcipients affect the disintegration of tablets, EXCEPT:

A. Binders

B. Colorants

C. Granulating agents

D. Disintegrants

B

98. Turbidimetric and nephelometric method of assay analyzed what type/s of sample?

A. Suspension

B. Solution

C. Turbid solution

D. Both A and C

D

99. In the repeat test for pyrogens using a total of eight rabbits, the requirement is met if the total rise in temperature is:

A. Less than 3.3 °C

B. Equal to 3.3°C

C. Equal to or less than 3.3°C

D. Equal to or more than 3.3°C

C

100. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological activity of the active ingredients?

A. Hardness

B. Dissolution

C. Friability

D. Disintegration

B