VTNE Practice Test

Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on a prescription label?

a. Date of the prescription

b. Age of the patient

c. Name of the prescriber

d. Address of the dispensing pharmacy

b. Age of the patient

Fluoroquinolones should not be used in:

a. Young animals because they cause arthropathy

b. Growing animals because they cause heart condition disturbances

c. Pregnant animals because they cause abortion

d. Older animals because they cause arthropathy

a. Young animals because they cause arthropathy

Which of the following is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

a. Streptomycin

b. Amikacin

c. Torbramycin

d. Neomycin

d. Neomycin

Which class of drugs is NOT a good choice to treat an infection by a gram-positive anaerobe?

a, Tetracyclines

b. Macrolides

c. Aminoglycosides

d. Beta-lactams

c. Aminoglycosides

When a cat is in compensatory shock the cat should receive isotonic replacement crystalloid fluids intravenously at a rate of:

a. 60mL/kg/hr

b. 90mL/kg/hr

c. 30mL/kg/hr

d. 45mL/kg/hr

a. 60mL/kg/hr

If a patient presented with dry and retracted eyes, dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulses, and a significant loss of skin turgor, at what precentage of interstitial dehydration would you estimate this patient to be?

a. More than 11%

b. 8-10%

c. 4-5%

d. 0-3%

b. 8-10%

To create a dextrose solution in a 500mL bag of 0.45% NaCl, how many mL of a 50% dextrose solution must be added? (Assume that a corresponding amount of NaCl solution will be removed prior to the dextrose being added.)

a. 5mL

b.25mL

c. 50mL

d. 100mL

c. 50mL

Hydromorphone, fentanyl, and pentobarbital are all classified by Drug Enforcement Administration regulations as belong to which of the following groups of controlled substances?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c. Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

b. Schedule II

Which of the following statements is/are true about the inventory of controlled substances?

a. A new inventory of controlled substances on hand must be taken every 2 years.

b. An inventory must include the number of commercial containers of each finished form.

c. An inventory must include the date the inventory was conducted.

d. All of the above are true.

d. All of the above are true.

What is a reverse distributor?

a. A supplier who resells returned merchandise

b. A supplier who resells returned pharmacy merchandise only

c. A Drug Enforcement Administration registered pharmacist who is authorized to sell items from their inventory to practitioners

d. A Drug Enforcement Administration registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances

d. A Drug Enforcement Administration registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances

Which of the following is an effective surface disinfectant?

a. 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite

b. 5.25% solution solution of sodium hypochlorite

c. 1:5 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite

d. All of the above

a. 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite

Which of the following is NOT true about recombinant human erythropoietin (rh-EPO)?

a. rh-EPO is indicated in canine and feline patients with renal disease and a PCV of 25% or less.

b. There is a high incidence of antibody formation to rh-EPO in dogs and cats.

c. rh-EPO should be given to dogs and cats three times weekly until the target PCV is reached.

d. The maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg

d. The maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg

Which of the following is the best description of strangles?

a. A contagious disease of horses caused by Streptococcus equi var equi

b. An autoimmune disease of dogs causing a skin disorder

c. A bacterial disease of horses that can be prevented with vaccination

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is false regarding endotoxins?

a. Endotoxin is a component of the external cell wall of gram-negative bacteria

b. Endotoxin causes the release of cytokines, vasoactive amines, and proteases

c. Glucocorticoids are used to treat endotoxic shock

d. Antibiotics are used to treat endotoxic shock

d. Antibiotics are used to treat endotoxic shock

Which of the following is NOT a statement of the Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics?

a. "Veterinary technician shall remain competent through commitment to lifelong learning."

b. "Veterinary technician shall safeguard the public and the profession against individuals deficient in professional competence or ethics."

c. "Veterinary technician shall assume accountability for their professional actions as well as those with whom they work."

d. "Veterinary technician shall represent their credentials or identify themselves with specific specialty organizations only if the designation has been awarded or earned."

c. "Veterinary technician shelves to accountability for their professional actions as well as those with whom they work."

Which of the following groups contains all the reportable diseases?

a. Bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley Fever, lumpy skin disease

b. Anthrax, coronavirus, Marek's disease, ascariasis

c. Rinderpest, sheep pox virus, toxoplasmosis, feline infectious peritonitis

d. Camel pox virus, Q fever, trichinellosis, feline immunodeficiency virus

a. Bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley Fever, lumpy skin disease

Which of the following is /are important post-surgical instructions following an ovariohysterectomy?

a. Directions for use of pain relief

b. Limit movement

c. Return for suture removal in 3 days

d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

What is the proper order of procedures for cleaning the canine or feline ear canal?

1. Ensure the tympanic membrane is intact

2. Massage the ear

3. Apply cleaning flushing fluid to the ear canal

4. Remove debris from the ear canal

a. 1,2,3,4

b. 4,1,2,3

c. 1,3,2,4

d. 3,2,4,1

c. 1,3,2,4

Which of the following is true about heart therapy during cranial cruciate ligament rehabilitation?

a. Damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise

b. Dry heat is applied to the joint and muscles

c. Heat is applied immediately following surgery

d. Heat is applied every hour during recovery

a. Damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise

When considering the dietary needs of a dog or cat with liver disease, which of the following is true?

a. Protein must be restricted

b. Normal amounts of protein are fed

c. A high-fat diet is recommended

d. High amounts of sugars are fed

b. Normal amounts of protein are fed

Calculate a constant rate infusion of lidocaine for 20 kg dog. The dog must receive lidocaine at 60 mcg/kg/minute. The dog is currently receiving NaCl at a rate of 60 mL/kg/day.

a. 68 mL

b. 72 mL

c. 78 mL

d. 90 mL

b. 72 mL

When a pet dies, its owner often experiences grief. Correctly identify the order of stages of the five stages of grief as identified by Kubler-Ross.

a. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance

b. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, and acceptance

c. Anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance, and peace

d. Bargaining, anger, depression, peace, acceptance.

a. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance

When evaluating a dog or cat for middle ear disease, which radiographic view is best to use?

a. VD or lateral

b. VD, open mouth, or parallel Open jaw

c. DV or open mouth

d. DV and lateral

b. VD, open mouth, or parallel Open jaw

"Fill the cat's bladder with contrast and saline. Place the cat in lateral recumbency. Applied gentle pressure to the bladder. Take a radiograph as fluid leaks out." Which of the following is the proper name for this procedure?

a. Bladder study

b. Vesiculourethrogram

c. Voiding urethrogram

d. Positive contrast urethrogram

c. Voiding urethrogram

A non-rebreathing circuit on an anesthesia machine should only be used:

a. For patients weighing 6 kg or less

b. For patients weighing more than six kg

c. During anesthetic induction

d. When using isoflurane anesthesia

a. For patients weighing 6 kg or less

Which of the following steps is not necessary to check an anesthesia machine in circuit prior to use?

a. Fill vaporizers

b. Confirm waste gas scavenging system is connected

c. Check the system for leaks by pressuring a closed circuit for 30 cm H2O

d. Allow oxygen and gas to flow for 5 minutes prior to use

d. Allow oxygen and gas to flow for 5 minutes prior to use

Which of the following is not a parameter for perfusion?

a. Capillary refill time

b. Mucous membrane color

c. Heart rate

d. Respiratory rate

d. Respiratory rate

Food should be withheld for how long prior to surgery and horses?

a. 1 hour

b. 4-8 hours

c. 24 hours

d. Food should not be withheld

b. 4-8 hours

Which of the following anesthetics is the only one licensed for use in fish?

a. Isoflurane

b. Etomidate

c. Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222)

d. Ketamine

​

c. Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222)

Surgical anesthesia is attained in rabbits and rodents:

a. When the patient has been on anesthetic gas for 5 minutes

b. When reflexes have decreased such as ear, and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal

c. When heart rate decreases to 40 beats per minute

d. In none of the above situations

b. When reflexes have been decreased such that ear, toe, and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal

Which of the following types of forceps would not be included in a standard surgical pack?

a. Kelly hemostatic forceps

b. Addison - Brown tissue forceps

c. Babcock forceps

d. Backhaus towel clamp

c. Babcock forceps

What is the correct use of Metzenbaum scissors?

a. To cut delicate tissue

b. To cut bandages

c. To cut sutures

d. For routine cutting and dissection

a. To cut delicate tissue

Which of the following is true about steam sterilization of surgical packs?

a. Cotton muslin wrap should never be used

b. A minimum temperature of 160°F is needed for sterilization

c. Wrapping material must be permeable to steam

d. Autoclave paper can be reused

c. Wrapping material must be permeable to steam

which of the following is true regarding cytochrome P450?

1. Cytochrome P450 Gene families are named beginning with the letters CYP

2. Cytochrome P450 enzymes metabolize toxins and drugs

3. Cytochrome P450 enzymes work primarily in the intestines

4. Cytochrome P450 enzyme synthesize steroids

5. Cytochrome P450 enzymes synthesize bile acids

6. Drugs can cause cytochrome p450 enzyme induction

a. 2,4,5,6

b. 1,2,4,5,6

c. 1,2,5,6

d. 1,2,3,4,5,6

b. 1,2,4,5,6

Diffusion across the cell membrane with the assistance of carrier proteins is called:

a. Diffusion

b. Osmosis

c. Facilitated diffusion

d. Filtration

c. Facilitated diffusion

When delivered fluid is more concentrated than intravascular fluid the delivered fluid is considered:

a. Hypertonic

b. Isotonic

c. Hypotonic

d. None of the above

a. Hypertonic

Adipose is what type of tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Muscle tissue

c. Nervous tissue

d. Connective tissue

d. Connective tissue

If something is plantar, it is:

a. At the bottom of the rear foot

b. Toward the tail

c. Toward the backbone

d. Farthest from the medial plane

a. At the bottom of the rear foot

Which of the following is equivalent?

a. 1 tbsp = 5 ml

b. 1 tbsp = 15 mL

c. 1 in = 2.45 cm

d. 1 in = 2.50 cm

b. 1 tbsp = 15 mL

A dog that weighs 80 lb weighs:

a. 36 kg

b. 31 kg

c. 176 kg

d. 203 kg

a. 36 kg

The proper name for a neutered male pig is a:

a. Gelding

b. Weather

c. Gib

d. Barrow

d. Barrow

The gestational period for the horse is:

a. 285 days

b. 148 days

c. 336 days

d. 365 days

c. 336 days

Which of the following is false about canine hookworms?

a. Uncinaria stenocephala is a canine hookworm

b. Canine hookworms have a worldwide incidence

c. The prepatent period of canine hookworms is 7 days

d. Dogs are infected by the ingestion of third stage larvae

c. The prepatent period of canine hookworms is 7 days

Alternaria species, green mite eggs, and planarian are all:

a. Pseudoparasites

b. Spurious parasites

c. Parasites of chickens

d. Parasites of geese

a. Pseudoparasites

The following life cycles is correctly ordered?

a. Dirofilaria immitis: larvae in the pulmonary arteries and the right heart; then microfilaria develop in the blood to the l2 stage; then mosquito transmits infective l3 by bite.

b. Taenia spp.: adult worms live in animals small intestine; then eggs are released from segments in feces; then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal

c. Toxascaris leonina: larvae mature in the small intestine an adult worms lay eggs; then eggs pass with feces; then eggs embryonate; then eggs undergo three molts; then animals pick up the l5 larvae in the environment.

d. Echinococcus granulosus: adult worms in the small intestine lay eggs; then eggs pass in feces; then larvae develop into infective l3 stage; then larvae are eating and developed into adult worms.

b. Taenia spp.: adult worms live in animals small intestine; then eggs are released from segments in feces; then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal

When performing a barium study of the upper gastrointestinal tract of a bird venture dorsal and lateral radiographs should be taken at:

a. 0, 15, 30, 60, and 20 minutes

b. 0, 15, 30, 45, and 60 minutes

c. 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes

d. 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes

c. 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes

Which is not a radiographic view commonly used to evaluate navicular bone disease?

a. Dorsoproximal - Palmerodistal view

b. Tangential coronary view

c. Lateral-medial view

d. Flexor tangential view

b. Tangential coronary view

You would expect to see which of the following radiographic changes in a dog with patent ductus arteriosus?

1. enlarged left ventricle

2. enlarged right ventricle

3. segmental enlargement of the descending aortic arch

4. enlarged left atrium

5. enhanced pulmonary vascular pattern

6. pulmonary effusion

a. 1,2,4,6

b. 2,3,5,6

c. 3,5,6

d. 1,3,4,5

d. 1,3,4,5

A deficiency in which nutrients is known to cause canine cardiomyopathy?

a. Taurine and carnitine

b. Taurine and glycine

c. Folic acid and carnitine

d. Calcium and folic acid

a. Taurine and carnitine

Guinea pigs have an absolute requirement for:

a. Vitamin a

b. Vitamin b

c. Vitamin c

d. Vitamin d

c. Vitamin c

Topical steroids should never be used on the eye when:

a. A corneal ulcer is present

b. Uveitis is present

c. A cataract is present

d. Systemic steroids are also used

a. A corneal ulcer is present

A 40 kg nursing bitch presents with hypocalcemia. she is to be treated with a constant rate infusion of 10% calcium gluconate at a rate of 10 mg/kg/hr. Calculate the amount of calcium gluconate to be delivered per minute.

a. 4 mg /min

b. 6.7 mg/min

c. 67 mg/min

d. 400 mg/min

b. 6.7 mg/min

What is true about testing for viral infection?

a. Positive viral serology proves active infection

b. To prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, 2 weeks apart, and show a rising viral titer

c. Positive viral serology that shows a viral antigen load of at least 1:128 is consistent with active infection

d. Negative viral serology proves that the animal has not been exposed to, and is not infected with, the virus

b. To prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, 2 weeks apart, and show a rising viral titer

A common test to establish the presence of ringworm infection is:

a. Response to antibiotics

b. Fecal flotation

c. Culture on dermatophyte medium

d. Culture on blood agar

c. Culture on dermatophyte medium

The feline dental formula - permanent is:

a. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1)

b. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2)

c. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)

d. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 3/3)

a. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1)

The owner of two cats calls to report that she's often finding feces outside the litter box. which of the following would you recommend?

a. Allowing the cats to go outdoors

b. Medicating the cats for anxiety

c. Confining the cats to the bathroom with the litter pans

d. A second letter pan in more frequent cleaning out of litter pans

d. A second letter pan in more frequent cleaning out of litter pans

The frequencies used for veterinarial to sound range from:

a. 10 to 20 MHz

b. 25 to 40 MHz

c. 0.1 to 0.2 MHz

d. 2.25 to 10 MHz

d. 2.25 to 10 MHz

Electrical activity that stimulates a heartbeat begins at the:

a. Bundle of his

b. Perkinje bundle

c. Sinoatrial node

d. Atrioventricular node

c. Sinoatrial node

SOAP stands for:

a. Standard Operating in Assessment Procedure

b. Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

c. Slim Overweight Anorexic Post-anorexic

d. Species Order Animalia Plantae

b. Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

Which of the following conditions are potential complications of a bovine to cesarean section?

1. Retained placenta

2. Dehydration

3. Mastitis

4. Incision complications

a. 1,4

b. 1,2,4

c. 1,2,3,4

d. 4

c. 1,2,3,4

Under OSHA regulations, a practices written safety and health program for employees involved in hazardous waste operations must include:

a. The safety and health training program, the names of all employees, and work schedules

b. Names of all employees involved in hazardous waste operations, a medical surveillance program, and contractors who share hazardous waste operations

c. The safety and health training program, a medical surveillance program, the practices standard operating procedures for safety and health

d. A comprehensive work plan, employee phone list, and work schedules

c. The safety and health training program, a medical surveillance program, the practices standard operating procedures for safety and health

Personal protective equipment for protection against radiation is made from:

a. Steel

b. Lead

c. Bonded flexible plastic

d. Rubber

b. Lead

In regard to radiographic personal protective equipment, veterinary technician should do all of the following except:

a. Fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through

b. Hang safety equipment

c. Wear their own dosimeter whenever taking or assisting with radiographs

d. Radiograph PPE to evaluate for cracks

a. Fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through

Patient files are often color coded to:

a. Identify the age of the patient

b. Establish the year a patient came to the practice

c. Prevent visual washout

d. Make filing errors easily visible

d. Make filing errors easily visible

Procaine penicillin should never be given in which of the following ways?

a. IV

b. IM

c. SQ

d. None of the above

a. IV

Canine body temperature exceeding 104° F is common with toxic exposure to:

a. lilies

b. metaldehyde

c. foxglove

d. rodenticide

b. metaldehyde

Reconstituted vaccines must be used within:

a. 1 hour

b. 1 day

c. 12 hours

d. 2 hours

a. 1 hour

An animal is prescribed prednisone on the following schedule:

"Take 20 mg every morning for 3 days. Take 10 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every other morning for 2 weeks"

How many tablets should be dispensed?

a. 20 tablets (5mg)

b. 30 tablets (5mg)

c. 20 tablets (10mg)

d. 25 tablets (10mg)

c. 20 tablets (10mg)

A refractometer should be calibrated to 0 every week using:

a. Control solution

b. Refraction fluid

c. Deionized water

d. Distilled water

d. Distilled water

"Walking dandruff" is:

a. Demodex, diagnosed with a tape preparation

b. Demodex, diagnosed by skin scraping

c. Cheyletiella, diagnosed with a tape preparation

d. Cheyletiella, diagnosed by skin scraping

c. Cheyletiella, diagnosed with a tape preparation

Use of a 40x objective on a standard light microscope will provide magnification of the studied object of:

a. 400x

b. 40x

c. 4X

d. 4000x

a. 400x

The presence of a large number of erythrocytes with a wide variation in size is referred to as:

a. Microcytosis

b. Poikilocytosis

c. Macrocytosis

d. Anisocytosis

d. Anisocytosis

Which are observed artifacts of histological sections?

1. Shrinkage

2. Precipitates

3. Folds

4. Growth distortion

a. 2,3

b. 1,2,3

c. 1,3,4

d. all of the above

b. 1,2,3

Put the following steps in order for Graham staining procedure:

1. The colorize with ethel alcohol

2. Rinse with water

3. Stain with Crystal violet

4. Stain with Graham's iodine

5. Staying with safranin

a. 3,2,4,1,2,5,2

b. 1,4,2,3,2,5

c. 1,3,2,5,2,4,2

d. 4,2,3,2,5,2,1

a. 3,2,4,1,2,5,2

A cat with Isosthenuric urine will have what measure on the refractometer?

a. Below 1.008

b. 1.008 to 1.020

c. 1.008 to 1.012

d. Above 1.020

c. 1.008 to 1.012

Neurotonin, the proprietary liquid formulation of gabapentin, is contradicted in dogs because it:

a. Causes seizures

b. Causes irreversible myelosuppression

c. Contains xylitol

d. Contains glycerin

c. Contains xylitol

Dogs treated with bromide as an anticonvulsant that are already past the initiation phase must have blood levels checked every:

a. 6 months

b. 3 months

c. 1 month

d. 2 weeks

a. 6 months

For a cat at risk, inappropriate vaccination plan against the feline leukemia virus is:

a. A two-dose primary series with annual vaccination thereafter

b. Vaccines every 2 to 4 weeks until 14 weeks of age and annual vaccination thereafter

c. Annual vaccination

d. A two-dose primary series

a. A two-dose primary series with annual vaccination thereafter

Total perineal nutrition is administered three large gauge catheter aseptically placed in the jugular vein or the:

a. Cranial vena cava

b. Caudal vena cava

c. Saphenous vein

d. Brachial vein

b. Caudal vena cava

Rabbits are known to have chronic and subclinical infections with which bacteria?

a. Pasteurella multocida

b. Klebsiella

c. Escherichia coli

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

a. Pasteurella multocida

Compared to the commonly unstained what preparation for feline or canine urine sediment evaluation, the air dried, modified Wright stain is

a. More accurate for determination of crystalluria

b. Less accurate for determination of crystalluria

c. More accurate for detection of bacteriuria

d. Less accurate for detection of bacteriuria

c. More accurate for detection of bacteriuria

For feline and canine patients that have not been premedicated, and appropriate dose of propofol for anesthetic induction is:

a. 3mg/kg IV given to effect

b. 6 mg/kg IV given to effect

c. 3-4 mg/kg IV

d. 10 mg/kg

b. 6 mg/kg IV given to effect

You're advising client with a new retriever about canine hip dysplasia. Which of the following statements would not be appropriate to mention?

a. Retrievers fed a control diet have a lower incidence of osteoarthritis than free fed retrievers

b. No commercial test ascertains the likelihood of a dog developing significant hip dysplasia

c. If hip dysplasia develops, signs could include stiffness and lameness in the hind limbs, a hopping gate, and difficulty jumping or walking up stairs

d. Because it is genetic, nothing can be done to prevent hip dysplasia in a pet

d. Because it is genetic, nothing can be done to prevent hip dysplasia in a pet

For personal or professional achievements should be SMART. SMART stands for:

a. Specific, manageable, attainable, realistic, timely

b. Specific, measurable, attainable, reliable, timely

c. Specific, manageable, attainable, reliable, targeted

d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely

d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely

A 10 kg dog requires a red cell transfusion. Calculate the rate of transfusion.

a. 20 ml/hr

b. 2 ml/hr

c. 0.1 ml/min

d. 1 ml/min

a. 20 ml/hr

What is the most common bacterium associated with urinary tract infections of the dog or cat?

a. Streptococcus

b. Staphylococcus

c. E. coli

d. Klebsiella

c. E. coli

Based on the oxygenation curve, and measured O2 valve should be concerning if it is below what percent?

a. 60%

b. 75%

c. 85%

d. 95%

d. 95%

Which is not a potential problem identified by a high CO2 level on the end title CO2 monitor during surgery?

a. Hypercapnia

b. Leak in system

c. Elevated inspired CO2

d. Bradycardia

d. Bradycardia

What is the drug of choice for a tick-borne pathogen such as Borella bergdorferi?

a. Doxycycline

b. Tetracycline

c. Penicillin

d. Fluoroquinolones

a. Doxycycline

The bovine fetal bladder attaches to the placental sac by the:

a. Urachus

b. Umbilical cord

c. Ureter

d. Vesiculosus

a. Urachus

Horses with painful colic often have heart rates exceeding:

a. 100 BPM

b. 140 BPM

c. 120 BPM

d. 50 BPM

d. 50 BPM

Which of the following is not a recognized category of shock?

a. Hypovolemic

b. Proliferative

c. Cardiogenic

d. Obstructive

b. Proliferative

Every time a radiograph is taken, a radiographic exposure log is commonly updated with which of the following information?

a. Date, patient name, measurements, type of cassette, exposure factors

b. Date, patient name, position, thickness of studied region, exposure factors, initials

c. Date, patient name, number of views, measurements

d. Patient name, number of views, exposure factors, cassette size

b. Date, patient name, position, thickness of studied region, exposure factors, initials

Inoculated agar plates should be evaluated for growth and change every:

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 1 week

d. 12 hours

a. 24 hours

MIC stands for:

a. Medial ileal cancer

b. Medial ileal cartilage

c. Minimum inhibitory concentration

d. Maximum inhibitory concentration

c. Minimum inhibitory concentration

Small intestinal cells absorb fluid droplets by the process of:

a. Phagocytosis

b. Pinocytosis

c. Membrane binding

d. Exocytosis

b. Pinocytosis

A 14.6 kg animal weighs:

a. 6.6 lb

b. 5 lb

c. 25 lb

d. 32.1 lb

d. 32.1 lb

A 50 lb dog in just eight sticks of gum, each containing 0.17 g of xylitol. Has the dog eaten a potentially toxic dose.

a. Yes

b. No

c. Depends on the breed

d. Depends on the dog's age

b. No

Which position of the anesthetized horse results in the greatest V/Q mismatch?

a. Left lateral recumbency

b. Right lateral recumbency

c. Dorsal recumbency

d External recumbency

c. Dorsal recumbency

which animal experiences first slip when roughly handled?

a. ferret

b. guinea pig

c. rabbit

d. chinchilla

d.