ATR 510 - Final (fill in the blank)

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66 Terms

1
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A _______________ has the greatest number of educational requirements to work in the emergency services field.

Paramedic

2
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Injury _______________ is using large data sets or databases to characterize the occurrence of sports injuries by identifying risk factors in order to develop injury prevention strategies and programs.

Epidemiology

3
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________________ is the single most important practice to reduce the transmission of infectious agents in health care settings and is an essential element of standard precautions.

Hand hygiene

4
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Brief details of the incident, including location and reason for assistance, are document in the ________________ portion of the patient chart.

Incident

5
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Health care provider 1 gives an order, health care provider 2 receives the message, and health care provider 1 double checks to ensure the message is understood. This type of communication is called _______________.

Closed communication or Echo/Checkback

6
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_______________ is the time it should take for collapse-to-shock delivery response of an AED in an emergency situation.

3-5 minutes

7
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Patients exhibiting _______________ will have difficulty breathing during an asthma attack.

Shortness of breath

8
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Assessing _______________ provides information about the ability of the cardiovascular system to adequately supply the body with blood and oxygen.

Perfusion/circulation or peripheral oxygen saturation

9
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Aspirin is given to patients who are presenting with signs or symptoms of _______________.

ACS and MI

10
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Sublingual medications allow for _______________ onset of action.

Rapid

11
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_______________ is edema of the deep dermis and subcutaneous tissues that can be life-threatening with swelling of the tongue, lips, and face with potential for airway obstruction.

Angioedema

12
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_______________ of the wound should be performed using a scalpel, scissors, or both to remove dead tissue or devitalized tissue.

Debridement

13
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_______________ is bleeding that leads to an acute loss of circulating blood volume.

Hemorrhagic

14
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Damage to the _______________ artery and the _______________ can lead to limb amputation after a knee dislocation.

Popliteal; Peroneal

15
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In the adult population, a pelvic ring fracture occurs with _______________ compression from the force of the seatbelt during a car accident.

Anterior/posterior

16
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_______________ occur most often in penetrating traumas and may cause indentations and bony fragments to enter the brain cavity.

Depressed skull fracture

17
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The _______________ is the safest way to access the airway of a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury.

Jaw thrust

18
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Athletic trainers should be prepared to administer over-the-counter medications such as _______________ for treatment of cardiac symptoms.

Aspirin

19
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_______________ is a delayed repolarization following a heartbeat that increases the risk irregular heartbeats originating from the ventricles.

Long QT syndrome

20
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_______________ is the volume of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute and is related to heart rate and contractility.

Cardiac Output

21
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The pelvis is made up of two separate bones, called _______________, which are joined posteriorly by the sacrum.

Ilium and ischium or Illa

22
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Upon determination that transportation is necessary, place the patient in a _______________ with the feet and legs elevated slightly, and provide supplemental oxygen.

Modified Transdelenburg

23
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_______________ is a sign for a patient with suspected appendicitis.

LRQ pain, McBurney's Point, Dunphy's Sign

24
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_______________ are created by salts crystalizing within the ureters, urinary bladder, or urethra, often forming a blockage.

Ureteral Stones or Kidney Stones

25
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Diabetes is known to cause _______________ in up to 70% of patients who have the disease.

Nerve Damage

26
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If insulin is administered, it should be injected into the _______________ tissues of the abdomen, upper thigh, or upper arm.

Subcutaneous

27
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_______________ is a disease in which the body is unable to produce or use insulin effectively.

Diabetes

28
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The BOC Code of Professional Responsibilities (Code 1.2) requires ATs to protect the patient from ____.

Harm

29
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Facilities similar to athletic training clinics are generally accredited as ambulatory care clinics that provide ___ in facilities where patients do not remain overnight.

Outpatient

30
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____ are the act of cleaning and disinfecting surfaces and equipment that may be contaminated with pathogens more frequently, including those that are in close proximity to the patient

Environmental measures

31
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A ____ trauma center has the ability to provide prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations

Level 3

32
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___ is used to establish a trauma patient and helps in the decision-making process of performing a rapid trauma exam or a slower and more focused exam

Mechanism of Injury

33
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The use of and adherence to ____ minimizes the infection risks to a patient

Aseptic Techniques

34
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___ ready tablets are often used with patients who experience severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis.

Antihistamine

35
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Sublingual medications allow for ____ onset of action.

Rapid

36
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Waiting until the coach has calmed down or discussing the status of a player with the assistant coach who will communicate the patient status with the head coach at the appropriate time or place is an example of ______.

Emotional intelligence

37
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____ of a trauma patient is the process of rapidly and accurately evaluating the patient to determine the extent of her injuries and the appropriate level of medical care required.

Field triage

38
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The patient's _____ is the symptom or condition that is the most serious and that is most concerning to the patient.

Chief complaint/concern

39
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_______________ can help patients feel more confident that they will be treated courteously and that the health care provider has genuine concern for patients' well-being.

Interpersonal Communication

40
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Calf discomfort elicited by dorsiflexion with the knee extended is known as ____ when DVT is suspected

Hollman's sign

41
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___ is a unique clinical syndrome in which anaphylaxis occurs within a few hours of specific food ingestion or any meal, and exercise

Food-dependent exercise induced

42
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____ provide wound edge approximation, allowing the healing process to proceed unimpeded

Suture

43
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A ____ knee dislocation is the most common type of dislocation in the knee

Anterior

44
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A patient with an ankle fracture that damages the peroneal nerve may present with ___ and the inability to evert the foot

Drop foot

45
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Cerebral strokes are divided into two types: ___ and ____

Ischemic and Hemorrhagic

46
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Bruising to the mastoid area of the skull as a result of a basilar skull fracture is known as

Battle sign

47
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During the spine boarding procedures, (the) ___ is in charge and giving instructions

Rescuer 1 (most experienced)

48
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The rescuer positions herself at the head of the injured patient. The rescuer grabs the trapezius muscles on both sides of the head with the thumbs facing anteriorly. This method is known as the ____

Trap squeeze

49
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A(n) _______________ fracture occurs when a ligament or tendon pulls off a piece of bone from its attachment site.

Avulsion

50
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_______________ is a complete degloving of the skin or complete amputation.

Class III Ring Avulsion

51
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Proximal tibia fractures are also known as _______________ fractures.

Tibial plateau

52
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_______________ is another name for bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye.

Hyphema

53
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____ is the most common form of distributive shock and is a primary cause of death from infection, especially when the infection is not recognized and treated properly.

Sepsis

54
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A patient who has sustained an epidural hematoma may exhibit a _____ or an initial loss of consciousness upon impact followed by regaining of consciousness and temporary improvement after which the condition deteriorates.

Lucid period

55
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The ____ can be described as when axial loading forces the superior vertebrae into either flexion or extension and then the inferior vertebrae moves in the opposite direction for the superior vertebrae.

Buckling effect

56
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___ is a sinus rate <60 bpm and is common in the athlete and well-trained client

Sinus bradycardia

57
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Structural causes of sudden cardiac death in athletes include ___ such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia

Genetic cardiomyopathies

58
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Athletes who have history of ___ should exercise caution and secure a physician's clearance before starting contact or collision sports.

Sickle Cell Trait

59
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___ diabetes, formerly called insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), is characterized by the body's inability to produce insulin

Type 1

60
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___ is an effective and quick assessment that measures blood sugar (serum glucose)

Glucometer

61
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_______________ is one of the most common causes of nontraumatic sudden cardiac death in athletes.

HCM (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

62
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_______________ presents with a higher testicle than is typical for the patient, or a transverse lying of the affected testis.

Torsion

63
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The pancreas secretes _______________, which stimulates liver, muscle, and fat cells to absorb glucose in the blood.

Insulin

64
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After a suspected injury to the spleen, a patient may have pain in the left shoulder called ____

Kehr's Sign

65
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Grade ____ of a splenic injury is described as a fractured spleen.

5 (V)

66
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Glucagon also stimulates muscles to manufacture glucose from stored protein by means of _____

Gluconeogenesis