Urinalysis and Hematology Review - Flashcards

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A set of practice flashcards covering urinalysis, specimen collection, urinalysis interpretation, urine sediment, crystals, uroliths, and hematology concepts from the notes.

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87 Terms

1
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What does a complete urinalysis include?

Evaluation of the physical, chemical, solute, and microscopic components of urine; may include microbiological cultures, sensitivity testing, and identification of urinary calculi.

2
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Why is pre-analytical care important in urinalysis?

Because pre-analytical patient variables, specimen collection, handling, and timing influence results.

3
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What is the primary use of urinalysis in patient evaluation?

To assess the urinary system and aid diagnosis of non–urinary tract disorders, including screening, monitoring, and evaluating treatment efficacy.

4
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What substances are endogenous in urine analysis?

Uric acid, amino acids, hormones, and electrolytes.

5
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What substances are exogenous in urine analysis?

Creatinine clearance and phenolsulfonphthalein dye.

6
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In qualitative (and semi-quantitative) urinalysis, is the outcome affected by the rate of urine formation?

No; the outcome is not affected by the rate of urine formation over a specific time.

7
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What factors influence quantitative urinalysis outcomes?

Volume collected, time, and conditions during collection.

8
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What should be included in a urine specimen container for lab work?

A clean (preferably sterile), dry, opaque container with a tight lid to prevent contamination and light degradation.

9
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Why should sterile containers be used for urine samples from cystocentesis or catheterization?

To prevent contamination, especially for bacterial culture.

10
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What timing considerations affect urine formation and collection?

Formation in the bladder, collection timing (fasted, postprandial, random, serial), and potential concentration differences.

11
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What is the recommended postprandial sampling window that may reflect diet?

A 3- to 6-hour postprandial sample.

12
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How soon should a urinalysis ideally be performed after collection?

Within 20 to 30 minutes of collection.

13
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What is Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) relevance in urinalysis?

POCT can increase accuracy and speed of urinalysis results.

14
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Name primary methods of urine collection discussed.

Free flow (clean catch), cystocentesis, transurethral catheterization, metabolism cage, litter pan, tabletop/cage/floor samples, and client-collected samples.

15
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Why is a midstream (free-flow) sample preferred for some analyses?

Simple and noninvasive, but not satisfactory for bacterial culture.

16
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What is cystocentesis?

Inserting a needle through the ventral abdomen into the bladder using aseptic technique to obtain urine, minimizing contamination for culture.

17
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What is transurethral catheterization?

Passing a catheter through the urethra into the bladder; sample is aspirated into a syringe; aseptic technique is essential.

18
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What collection method is often best for bacterial culture?

Cystocentesis sample collection.

19
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How should urine be preserved for microscopic evaluation?

Centrifuge immediately; refrigerate at ~2–8°C for 2–12 hours if needed; bring to room temperature before evaluation.

20
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Does freezing urine affect cellular elements?

Yes; freezing (≤32°F/0°C) is satisfactory for many chemical analytes but destroys cellular elements.

21
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What are common chemical urine preservatives mentioned?

Acidifiers (e.g., boric acid, hydrochloric acid), formaldehyde, toluene, thymol, phenol, chloroform, sodium fluoride; these may preserve some elements but affect others.

22
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How long should urine be analyzed after collection to maximize validity?

Within 20 to 30 minutes to minimize pre-analytical variables.

23
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What does pre-collection and post-collection iatrogenic variability cause?

Increases or decreases in results, leading to false-positive or false-negative results.

24
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Define anuria.

Complete absence of urine formation or elimination.

25
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Define continence in urinary terms.

Storage of urine in the bladder as it fills.

26
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Define dysuria.

Difficulty or pain on urination.

27
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Define incontinence.

Dribbling of urine at frequent intervals.

28
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Define micturition.

Physiological term for emptying the bladder (urination).

29
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Define oliguria.

A decrease in the formation or elimination of urine.

30
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Define pollakiuria.

Frequent urination.

31
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Define polyuria.

Formation and excretion of large volumes of urine.

32
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What pigments primarily color urine yellow?

Urochrome pigments; urobilinogen can also influence color.

33
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How is urine turbidity described?

As clear, hazy, cloudy, turbid, opaque, or flocculent (large particulates settle).

34
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What causes cloudy urine?

Cellular debris, RBCs, WBCs, epithelial cells, crystals, bacteria, casts, mucus, lipids; standing may promote cloudiness.

35
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Which odor is associated with urease-producing bacteria?

Ammoniacal odor.

36
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What is the practical use of urine specific gravity (USG)?

To assess the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute filtrates; interpreted with hydration, BUN, and creatinine.

37
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What does SG indicate when recorded as -sthen, iso-, hypo-, and hyper-?

Strength/concentration relative to plasma: isosthenuria (~1.008–1.012), hyposthenuria (

38
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What is isosthenuria?

Fixed SG around 1.008–1.012, glomerular filtrate SG equals plasma SG.

39
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What is hyposthenuria?

SG < ~1.008; tubules dilute urine below plasma SG; osmolality < plasma.

40
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What is hypersthenuria?

SG > ~1.012; tubules concentrate urine above plasma SG; osmolality > plasma.

41
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Name a common method to evaluate SG and a caveat.

Refractometer; needs species-specific scale and proper temperature calibration.

42
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What is a common limitation of urine SG reagent strips in animals?

Developed for humans; less reliable in animals and can be affected by protein, lipids, ketones, or alkaline urine.

43
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What is osmolality (mOsm/kg) and how is it measured?

Measure solute concentration; most representative method uses osmometers (expensive and time-consuming).

44
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How can USG roughly approximate urine osmolality?

Multiply the last two digits of USG by 36 (e.g., 1.030 ≈ 1080 mOsm/kg).

45
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What are the primary SG evaluation tools?

Refractometer, urinometer, SG reagent strips, and osmometry.

46
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What is the UPC ratio?

Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio; reflects 24-hour protein excretion from a single sample.

47
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What are ketone bodies?

Acetone, acetoacetic acid, and β-hydroxybutyric acid; produced during fat metabolism and can cause ketonuria.

48
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What does bilirubinuria indicate?

Presence of conjugated bilirubin in urine; can indicate biliary obstruction, hepatic disease, or other conditions.

49
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What does urobilinogen in urine reflect?

Breakdown product of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria; elevated levels may indicate liver or GI tract dysfunction or intravascular hemolysis (though interpretation in animals is variable).

50
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What is nitrite testing in humans used for?

Indirect indication of bacteriuria; in animals, urine cultures and microscopy are best for detecting bacteriuria.

51
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What is leukocyte esterase testing reliability in cats vs dogs?

False positives are more common in cats; false negatives can occur in dogs; fresh urine microscopic evaluation is recommended.

52
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What is the urobilinogen test’s usefulness in animals?

Unreliable or questionable in many veterinary patients; not routinely used as a definitive indicator.

53
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What is the role of microscopic evaluation of urine sediment?

Provides exfoliate cytology; essential alongside physical/chemical tests to interpret turbidity, crystals, casts, and cells.

54
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What sample preparation steps are recommended for urine sediment?

Best after extended rest; refrigerate if not examined within 20–30 minutes; centrifuge at manufacturer-recommended speed.

55
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What should be done with the volume of sediment?

Note sediment volume; resuspend the sediment and use a small drop on a slide for examination.

56
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Which staining approaches are used for urine sediment?

Stained (e.g., Sternheimer–Malbin, new methylene blue, Diff-Quik) or unstained; staining choice affects element appearance.

57
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What is hyaline cast?

A few may be seen in normal urine; composed of mucoprotein; indicates mild renal irritation.

58
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What do granular casts indicate?

Typically associated with acute nephritis or tubular degeneration; contain degenerated cells or proteins.

59
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What do RBC casts signify?

Bleeding into the renal tubules.

60
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What do WBC casts indicate?

Tubular inflammation or tubulointerstitial nephritis.

61
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What are common types of crystals seen in urine and their associations?

Struvite (coffin lids) in alkaline urine or urease-producing infections; calcium oxalate; calcium carbonate; uric acid; leucine, tyrosine, cystine in acidic urine; ammonium biurate in certain breeds.

62
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What animals commonly have calcium carbonate crystals in urine?

Horses and some ruminants; may form crystals in standing urine.

63
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What is the typical common feline and canine urolith predominance historically?

Cats: calcium oxalate; dogs: struvite more common historically.

64
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What is the general purpose of hematology testing in veterinary medicine?

Complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate red cells, white cells, platelets, and blood indices; assess overall health and detect disease.

65
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What does a CBC typically include?

Total erythrocyte count, leukocyte counts, PCV (hematocrit), total plasma protein, hemoglobin, RBC indices, and blood film evaluation.

66
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What does PLT stand for in hematology?

Platelets in peripheral blood.

67
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What does PCT stand for in hematology?

Plateletcrit; a platelet index reflecting the relative volume of platelets in blood.

68
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Why is NRBC correction sometimes necessary in WBC counts?

NRBCs can inflate the leukocyte count; correction is needed for accurate WBC estimates.

69
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What anticoagulant is preferred for hematology in most mammals?

EDTA, in proper anticoagulant-to-blood ratio.

70
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What anticoagulant is preferred for birds and reptiles?

Heparin.

71
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What is the recommended practice for filling EDTA tubes?

Fill to at least 90% to maintain proper anticoagulant-to-blood ratio.

72
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What happens if you over- or under-fill an anticoagulated tube?

Overfilling can cause cell distortion; underfilling can cause crenation and leukocyte changes.

73
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Why should EDTA not be considered a preservative for hematology?

It prevents coagulation but does not preserve cellular morphology; samples should be processed promptly.

74
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How should blood be transferred from syringe to vacuum tube?

Option A: remove stopper and needle; push blood to tube to preserve morphology; Option B: allow vacuum to pull blood after inserting syringe through stopper.

75
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How should blood samples be mixed after collection?

Gently invert; do not shake.

76
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What factors can cause stress leukograms in patients?

Fear, excitement, restraint; shift to mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, lymphopenia, eosinopenia in cats and dogs.

77
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What are reticulocytes and how are they evaluated?

Immature erythrocytes with residual ribosomes; evaluated with Wright’s stain; aggregate and punctate forms in cats; aggregate is counted.

78
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How is reticulocyte percentage reported?

As a percentage of RBCs or as an absolute reticulocyte count per microliter.

79
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What is MCV?

Mean corpuscular volume; average size of erythrocytes; calculated from PCV and RBC count.

80
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What is MCH?

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin; mean weight of Hb per RBC; calculated from Hb and RBC count.

81
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What is MCHC?

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration; proportion of Hb in the average RBC; calculated from Hb and PCV.

82
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What does RDW measure?

Red cell distribution width; variation in RBC size; higher values indicate greater anisocytosis.

83
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What is the significance of reticulocytosis?

Indicates bone marrow response to anemia; species variations exist (notably in horses).

84
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What are platelets and how do MPV values relate to them?

Platelets are anuclear cytoplasmic fragments; MPV indicates average platelet size; higher MPV suggests younger/giant platelets; lower MPV suggests microplatelets.

85
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What influences total plasma protein (TPP) measurements?

Hydration status; high in dehydration or inflammation; low with protein loss or hemodilution.

86
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Why is quality control important for hematology instruments?

To ensure accuracy and reliability; include calibration, known controls, and instrument maintenance.

87
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What special considerations apply to avian and reptilian leukocytes?

NRBCs are normal; counting is more difficult with standard mammalian methods; laser flow cytometry is increasingly used.