A&P Exam 2 (Integumentary, Bones, Skeleton, and Joints)

Which layer of the skin has no blood vessels?

Epidermis

Which layer is not part of your skin?

a. Dermis

b. Epidermis

c. Hypodermis

d. Papillary

Hypodermis

What percentage of the body weight in the average adult is from the skin?

7%

All of the following contribute to skin color except: ________.

a. hemoglobin

b. carotene

c. keratin

d. melanin

Keratin

This layer of the skin is responsible for our fingerprints.

Papillary dermis

What is the most common form of skin cancer?

Basal Cell Carcinoma

What protein found throughout the epidermis gives the epidermis its protective properties?

a. Carotene

b. Collagen

c. Keratin

d. Melanin

Keratin

Which cells in the epidermis are key activators of the immune system?

a. Keratinocytes

b. Melanocytes

c. Dendritic cells

d. Tactile cells

Dendritic cells

Dogs track humans by the scent of epithelial cells that are constantly being shed. These cells are shed from which stratum?

a. Basale

b. Corneum

c. Granulosum

d. Spinosum

Corneum

In which layer of the epidermis would you expect to find the healthiest cells?

a. Basale

b. Corneum

c. Granulosum

d. Papillary

Basale

The dermis is composed of what type of tissue?

Connective

Which of the following is not associated with the dermis?

a. Blood vessels

b. Collagen

c. Nerves

d. None of the above – all are found in the

dermis

None of the above

Where is a hair follicle found?

a. Epidermis

b. Dermis

c. Hypodermis

d. Stratum corneum

Dermis

Which layer of the dermis is closest to the epidermis?

a. Stratum basale

b. Stratum corneum

c. Papillary

d. Reticular

Papillary

Peglike folds of the superficial layer of the dermis are called dermal ________.

a. corpuscles

b. papillae

c. flexures

d. ridges

papillae

Sudoriferous glands are also known as _________ glands.

a. ceruminous

b. endocrine

c. sebaceous

d. sweat

sweat

What two layers make up the skin?

Dermis and Epidermis

The sweat glands that are important in body temperature regulation are the ______ glands.

a. eccrine

b. apocrine

c. ceruminous

d. sebaceous

eccrine

This gland, found in the skin, is an oil gland.

a. Endocrine

b. Ceruminous

c. Sebaceous

d. Sudoriferous

Sebaceous

Apocrine glands begin mainly functioning when?

a. At birth

b. When starting college

c. At puberty

d. Older adulthood

At puberty

Hair and nails are modifications of the ________.

a. dermis

b. epidermis

c. hypodermis

d. none of the above because they are not part of the skin

epidermis

What are the three pigments that contribute to skin color?

Melanin, Carotene, and Hemoglobin

The smooth muscle associated with a hair follicle is called _________.

a. arrector pili

b. arrector vellus

c. alopecia areata

d. erector folliculi

arrector pili

Which carcinoma is the most common, least malignant?

a. Melanoma

b. Squamous cell

c. A&B

d. Basal cell

Basal cell

If a person’s entire Right lower extremity was diagnosed with a second-degree burn, would the burn be considered “critical”

No

When people gain weight, they often also gain inches due to an accumulation of fat in which layer?

a. Epidermis

b. Papillary

c. Reticular

d. Hypodermis

Hypodermis

Which of the following layers of the epidermis consists of 20-30 layers of dead cells:

Stratum corneum

Which layer contains nerve fibers?

Dermis

What are considered appendages of the skin?

Hair, hair follicles, nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands

Which of the following are functions of the integumentary systems?

a. body temperature regulation

b. all answers listed

c. excretion

d. protection 

all answers listed

An individual has 3rd degree burns over his full anterior trunk, but no-where else. What condition would he be considered to be in?

critical 

The process of bone tissue formation is called_______.

a. osteotomy

b. osteosis

c. osteogenesis

d. osteochondritis

osteogenesis

Which of the following forms of postnatal bone growth increase the length of long bones?

a. intramembranous

b. appendicular

c. interstitial

d. endochondral

interstitial

What is the correct term for a growth plate?

a. osteoblasts

b. articular plate

c. epiphyseal plate

d. chondral plate

epiphyseal plate

The act of realigning bone fractures is called a _________.

a. replacement

b. refusion

c. revision

d. reduction

reduction

Bone _______ and ________ are a part of the lifelong process of bone development.

a. reorganizing and regrowth

b. remodeling and repair

c. maturation and ossification

d. activation and deactivation

remodeling and repair

Which hormone is the most important in stimulating epiphyseal plate activity in infancy and childhood?

a. Growth hormone

b. Testosterone

c. Estrogen

d. Progesterone

Growth hormone

Which hormone modulates the activity of growth hormone?

a. Growth stimulating hormone

b. Thyroid hormone

c. Thyroid stimulating hormone

d. Testosterone/Estrogen

thyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone controls the negative feedback hormonal loop for blood levels of ____.

a. vitamin D

b. osteocytes

c. red blood cells

d. calcium

calcium

Testosterone in males and Estrogen in females end epiphyseal plate closure at approximately what ages in males and females?

a. 18 and 21

b. 16 and 18

c. Both 21

d. 20 and 22

18 and 21

Which law explains handedness (right- or left- handed) results in thicker and stronger bone of that upper limb?

a. Wolff's Law

b. Muscle tension

c. PTH

d. Mechanical Stress

Wolff's Law

Bone ends out of normal alignment.

a. open

b. displaced

c. complete

d. incomplete

displaced

Skin penetrated in break.

a. closed

b. displaced

c. complete

d. compound

compound

Bone broken all the way through.

a. Compound

b. complete

c. Simple

d. displaced

Complete

Bone is crushed.

a. comminuted

b. depressed

c. greenstick

d. compression

compression

Bone breaks into fragments of 3 or more pieces.

a. greenstick

b. shattered

c. spiral

d. comminuted

comminuted

Which of the following is not a bone projection?

a. Head

b. Meatus

c. Tuberosity

d. Crest

Meatus

Which bone marking would most likely be part of a joint?

a. Condyle

b. Epicondyle

c. Meatus

d. Crest

Condyle

The bone cell that produces the bony matrix in a developing bone is the _________.

a. osteocyte

b. osteoclast

c. osteoblast

d. chondrocyte

osteoblast

The primary ossification center of a long bone is found in the _________.

a. epiphysis

b. diaphysis

c. periosteum

d. endosteum

diaphysis

What is true about osteogenic bones?

a. Giant, multinucleated cells for bone reabsorption

b. Bone forming cells

c. Bone stem cells

d. Help maintain matrix

Bone stem cells

A vitamin that is important for calcium absorption in the intestine is ______.

a. vitamin A

b. vitamin C

c. vitamin D

d. all of the above

vitamin D

Which disease is known as a ‘wear and tear” condition?

a. Paget’s Disease

b. Osteomalacia

c. Rickets

d. Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis

Newly produced bony matrix that has not yet been mineralized is called a(n) __________.

a. epiphyseal plate

b. osteoid seam

c. calcification front

d. articular cartilage

osteoid seam

Which of the following is not a stage of bone repair?

a. Callus formation

b. Hematoma formation

c. Bone collar formation

d. Bone remodeling

Bone collar formation

Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

a. Petite body frame

b. Hormone replacement therapy

c. Selective estrogen receptor modulators

d. Statins

Petite body frame

Name the zones of interstitial bone growth in

order from first to last (I-V).

I. Resting

II. Proliferation

III. Hypertrophic

IV. Calcification

V. Ossification

Spongy bone can be described as

Honeycomb of flat pieces of bone

The medullary cavity is located in:

Diaphysis

Which of the following is NOT a ZONE included in interstitial growth, or lengthening of the long bone?

membranous

Bone remodeling and repair occurs only until we reach our full adult height or after fracture.

False

The two types of ossification are called

intramembranous and endochondral

Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

a. Sphenoid

b. Ethmoid

c. Parietal

d. Maxilla

Maxilla

The suture between the parietal and temporal bones is the ______ suture.

a. coronal

b. lambdoid

c. sagittal

d. squamous

squamous

The mastoid process belongs to which bone?

a. Sphenoid

b. Ethmoid

c. Temporal

d. Frontal

Temporal

Which bone articulates with the first vertebra?

a. Sphenoid

b. Ethmoid

c. Occipital

d. Frontal

Occipital

This bone is considered a keystone bone.

a. Ethmoid

b. Sphenoid

c. Temporal

d. Frontal

Sphenoid

Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

a. Mandible

b. Lacrimal

c. Hyoid

d. Zygomatic

Hyoid

This facial bone helps to form the nasal septum.

a. Lacrimal

b. Nasal

c. Vomer

d. Zygomatic

Vomer

This facial bone helps form the hard palate.

a. Mandible

b. Maxilla

c. Vomer

d. Zygomatic

Maxilla

Into which hole do dentists inject lidocaine to prevent pain while working on the lower teeth?

a. Incision fossa

b. Mandibular foramina

c. Infraorbital foramen

d. Mental foramina

Mandibular foramina

Which bone is the cheekbone?

a. Maxilla

b. Mandible

c. Zygomatic

d. They are all cheekbones.

Zygomatic

This vertebra has no body.

a. Atlas/C1

b. Axis/C2

c. Thoracic

d. Sacrum

Atlas

Which type of rib does not connect to the sternum?

a. True ribs

b. Floating ribs

c. False ribs

d. Free ribs

Floating ribs

The superior portion of the sternum is the ________.

a. body

b. glenoid fossa

c. manubrium

d. xiphoid process

manubrium

If you see a foramen in the transverse process of a vertebra, which type of vertebra are you observing?

a. Cervical

b. Thoracic

c. Lumbar

d. Sacral

Cervical

There are how many lumbar vertebrae?

a. 7

b. 5

c. 3

d. 12

5

The pectoral girdle is composed of the _________.

a. scapula and humerus

b. clavicle and scapula

c. clavicle, scapula, and humerus

d. humerus and clavicle

clavicle and scapula

The radial groove is located on which bone?

a. Humerus

b. Radius

c. Ulna

d. Scapula

Humerus

The glenoid cavity is part of which bone?

a. Clavicle

b. Humerus

c. Ulna

d. Scapula

Scapula

Children are often told to keep this process off the

table while eating.

a. Acromion

b. Coronoid

c. Olecranon

d. Trochlea

Olecranon

On which bone is the head found at the distal end?

a. Radius

b. Ulna

c. Humerus

d. Scapula

Ulna

Which bone is not part of the pelvic girdle?

a. Ilium

b. Ischium

c. Pubis

d. Sacrum

Sacrum

The lesser trochanter is found on which bone?

a. Os coxa

b. Femur

c. Tibia

d. Fibula

Femur

The heel bone is called the _________.

a. tarsus

b. talus

c. calcaneus

d. hallux

Calcaneus

The lateral malleolus is part of which bone?

a. Patella

b. Femur

c. Tibia

d. Fibula

Fibula

Which tarsal bone is the keystone of the medial longitudinal arch?

a. Talus

b. Calcaneus

c. Cuboid

d. Navicular

Talus

Which of the following bones does not directly articulate with any other bones of the skeleton?

a. Rib 12

b. Patella

c. Hyoid

d. Scapula

Hyoid

What is true about MOST cervical vertebrae?

Their spinous processes are bifid

Which of the following is true about nucleus pulposus:

It is what gives a disc its elasticity and compressibility

Which of the following is true about the lateral malleolus

It is part of the distal fibula

What landmark separates the supraspinatus fossa from the infraspinatus fossa?

The spine of the scapula

The two main types of joint classification are ______.

a. size and structure

b. size and shape

c. structure and function

d. shape and function

structure and function

The hip joint is an example of a(n) ______.

a. synchondrosis

b. synarthrosis

c. amphiarthrosis

d. diarthrosis

Diarthrosis

A fibrous joint connected by ligaments is

classified as a ______.

a. suture

b. syndesmosis

c. gomphosis

d. symphysis

syndesmosis

Which of the following is a cartilaginous joint?

a. Suture

b. Synarthrosis

c. Gomphosis

d. Symphysis

symphysis

Which of the following is an example of a synarthrosis?

a. Diarthrosis

b. Suture

c. Symphysis

d. Syndesmosis

suture

Synovial joints are examples of ______.

a. amphiarthroses

b. diarthroses

c. synarthroses

d. synchondroses

diarthroses

A unique feature of synovial joints is ________.

a. a joint cavity

b. cartilage

c. ligaments

d. All the above are unique to synovial joints.

a joint cavity

All of the following are synovial joints except ______.

a. temporomandibular

b. interphalangeal

c. intervertebral

d. elbow

intervertebral