Chapter Sixteen📖

What percentage of Canadians suffer from a mental disorder at some point in their lives?

A) 1 in 5
B) 1 in 10
C) 1 in 4
D) 1 in 3

A) 1 in 5

Which of the following is considered an underreported statistic in mental health?

A) 25% of people experience a panic attack.
B) Up to 46.4% of individuals with a mental disorder may not report it.
C) 1 in 10 people are hospitalized for psychiatric disorders.
D) 15% of children suffer from mental disorders.

B) Up to 46.4% of individuals with a mental disorder may not report it.

Which of the following would most likely be considered abnormal in Western culture?

A) A man kissing another man on the lips
B) A student drinking until she passes out
C) A woman refusing to eat for several days
D) Feeling really sad

C) A woman refusing to eat for several days

What does the discontinuity hypothesis suggest about abnormal behavior?

A) Abnormal behavior is a continuum between mental health and illness.
B) Abnormal behavior can only be accurately described using strong, definitive terms.
C) Abnormal behavior is the result of environmental factors alone.
D) Mental health and mental illness should be viewed as separate and unconnected.

B) Abnormal behavior can only be accurately described using strong, definitive terms.

What does continuity hypothesis mean:

A) A series of distinct and separate stages of development.
B) A static state of wellness with no changes over time.
C)  Insanity and mental illness terms should not be used 

D) A state that only shifts towards illness if certain conditions occur.

C)  Insanity and mental illness terms should not be used 

What are the key components of optimal mental health?

A) Subjective well-being, achievement of appropriate goals, and minimal mental health.
B) Dysfunction, impairment of mental abilities, and failure to achieve goals.
C) Achievement of goals, emotional regulation, and minimal distress.
D) Subjective distress, underdevelopment of abilities, and destructive behavior.

C) Achievement of goals, emotional regulation, and minimal distress.

Which of the following is a characteristic of minimal mental health?

A) Effective group dynamics and environmental harmony.
B) Subjective distress and impairment of mental abilities.
C) Achievement of personal and societal goals.
D) Lack of any form of distress or impairment.

B) Subjective distress and impairment of mental abilities.

Why is it important for mental health judgments to be objective?

A) To minimize the impact of personal values and biases on diagnosis.
B) Because subjective assessments are always unreliable in diagnosing mental disorders.
C) To ensure that diagnoses are based solely on personal beliefs and experiences.
D) To avoid considering cultural influences and context.

A) To minimize the impact of personal values and biases on diagnosis.

Reliability in diagnosing mental disorders refers to:

A) Ensuring that all diagnostic categories are accurate and useful.
B) Making sure that different clinicians agree on a diagnosis based on observable behaviors.
C) The ability of a diagnosis to predict future behavior and outcomes.
D) Ensuring that only one clinician makes the diagnosis to avoid conflict.

B) Making sure that different clinicians agree on a diagnosis based on observable behaviors.

Validity in diagnosing mental disorders means:

A) The diagnosis should be based on subjective interpretations by the clinician.
B) The diagnostic categories should accurately reflect the essential features of the disorder.
C) The diagnosis should only be made if the disorder is rare.
D) The diagnosis is not influenced by societal norms or values.

B) The diagnostic categories should accurately reflect the essential features of the disorder.

Which of the following is a key factor in determining whether a behavior is abnormal?

A) Whether the behavior is uncommon in a society.
B) If the behavior causes distress or dysfunction in the individual or society.
C) If the behavior violates moral or ideal standards of a society.
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

A person who hears voices that others do not hear may be considered abnormal due to which characteristic?

A) Deviance from social norms
B) Maladaptiveness or hindrance to daily functioning
C) Statistical rarity
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following would be considered deviant behavior?

A) A person speaking incoherently in a social setting
B) A person failing to meet societal expectations due to a personal belief system
C) A person engaging in socially approved behavior
D) A person feeling sadness during a stressful life event

B) A person failing to meet societal expectations due to a personal belief system

Maladaptiveness in terms of abnormal behavior refers to:

A) A behavior that is both irrational and unpredictable.
B) A behavior that hinders an individual’s ability to function effectively.
C) A behavior that deviates from social norms and is considered morally wrong.
D) A behavior that is rare and statistically unusual.

B) A behavior that hinders an individual’s ability to function effectively.

According to David Rosenhan’s "Sane in Insane Places" experiment, individuals:

A) Were easily identified as mentally ill by trained clinicians.
B) Were diagnosed with disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia, even though they were not mentally ill.
C) Were treated with empathy and respect, as they were believed to be mentally ill.
D) Were never diagnosed with mental disorders, despite pretending to be mentally ill.

B) Were diagnosed with disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia, even though they were not mentally ill.

Which of the following best illustrates the cultural relativity of abnormal behavior?

A. A man barking like a dog in a public park.

B. Cannibalism practiced as part of cultural rituals in Papua New Guinea.

C. Hearing voices and believing they are divine messages.

D. A student drinking until they pass out.

B. Cannibalism practiced as part of cultural rituals in Papua New Guinea.

According to the Discontinuity Hypothesis, which of the following would likely be considered "abnormal"?

A. Feeling nervous before an exam

B. Believing you are the reincarnation of Napoleon

C. Feeling sad after a breakup

D. Experiencing mild social anxiety at a party

B. Believing you are the reincarnation of Napoleon

Which of the following is NOT one of the three pillars of optimal mental health?

A. Subjective well-being

B. Social deviance

C. Achievement of appropriate goals

D. Optimal development of abilities

B. Social deviance

Which of the following is an example of maladaptive behavior?

A. Refusing to leave home due to extreme germophobia

B. Crying after a breakup

C. Feeling nervous during a job interview

D. Deciding not to pursue higher education

A. Refusing to leave home due to extreme germophobia

An individual’s behavior causing discomfort to others falls under which category of abnormality?

A. Deviance

B. Observer Discomfort

C. Maladaptiveness

D. Subjective Distress

B. Observer Discomfort

Why is reliability important in diagnosing mental disorders?

A. It ensures a clinician's personal judgment is used.

B. It minimizes bias and allows consistent diagnosis across clinicians.

C. It eliminates the need for observable behaviors.

D. It captures the essential features of a disorder.

B. It minimizes bias and allows consistent diagnosis across clinicians.

A diagnostic category that fails to distinguish between two mental disorders lacks:

A. Reliability

B. Validity

C. Objectivity

D. Observability

B. Validity

In David Rosenhan’s study, what was the main finding?

A. Healthy individuals were never diagnosed as mentally ill.

B. Diagnostic labels influenced how participants’ behavior was interpreted.

C. Psychiatrists correctly distinguished between sane and insane individuals.

D. Mental illness was shown to be largely genetic.

B. Diagnostic labels influenced how participants’ behavior was interpreted.

Which of the following demonstrates the cultural relativity of abnormality?

A. Cannibalism in certain tribes being normal but abnormal in Western societies.

B. A person having a low IQ.

C. Public displays of affection being common in Canada but rare in Japan.

D. None of the above.

A. Cannibalism in certain tribes being normal but abnormal in Western societies.

Which of the following is an example of deviance violating social norms?

A. A woman practicing cannibalism as part of her cultural rituals.

B. A man barking like a dog in a supermarket.

C. A child crying during a doctor’s visit.

D. A student failing an exam.

B. A man barking like a dog in a supermarket.

Hearing voices and talking to yourself when no one is around would be classified as:

A. Observer Discomfort

B. Maladaptiveness

C. Irrationality

D. Unpredictability

C. Irrationality

What does Rosenhan’s study suggest about mental health diagnoses?

A. They are always objective.

B. They are heavily influenced by clinicians’ expectations.

C. Patients with schizophrenia cannot recover.

D. Labels improve treatment outcomes.

B. They are heavily influenced by clinicians’ expectations.

What is the main purpose of the multiaxial system used in DSM-IV-TR?

A. To assess a person's medical history only
B. To evaluate different aspects of a person's mental health and functioning comprehensively
C. To provide a list of medications for mental health treatment
D. To classify disorders based solely on symptoms

B. To evaluate different aspects of a person's mental health and functioning comprehensively

What type of conditions are included under Axis II of DSM-IV-TR?

A. Temporary disorders triggered by stress
B. Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation
C. General medical conditions affecting mental health
D. Environmental and psychosocial stressors

B. Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation

In the DSM-IV-TR, what is the purpose of Axis IV?

A. To determine the global functioning level of the patient
B. To evaluate psychosocial and environmental stressors that might impact mental health
C. To assess physical health conditions affecting mental health
D. To identify chronic and developmental issues

B. To evaluate psychosocial and environmental stressors that might impact mental health

Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial stressor listed on Axis IV?

A. Hypertension
B. Divorce
C. Schizophrenia
D. Borderline Personality Disorder

B. Divorce

The vulnerability-stress model (or diathesis-stress model) suggests that disorders arise when:

A. A person has a vulnerability and experiences significant stress
B. A person is genetically predisposed, regardless of environmental factors
C. Stress is reduced through effective coping strategies
D. Psychological factors are unrelated to genetic influences

A. A person has a vulnerability and experiences significant stress

Which of the following perspectives focuses on unconscious conflicts as the cause of psychological disorders?

A. Biological
B. Cognitive
C. Psychodynamic
D. Behavioural

C. Psychodynamic

What is comorbidity?

A. A classification system for diagnosing mental disorders
B. The co-occurrence of two or more disorders in the same individual
C. The relationship between environmental stressors and mental disorders
D. A measure of the severity of mental health symptoms

B. The co-occurrence of two or more disorders in the same individual

Which of the following historical perspectives assumed disorders were caused by unconscious conflicts?

A. Supernatural theories
B. Psychological theories
C. Biological theories
D. Diathesis-stress theories

B. Psychological theories

According to the biological theories of psychological disorders, what factors are most likely to contribute to the development of a disorder?

A. Early traumatic experiences
B. Structural abnormalities and genetic influences
C. Psychosocial stressors
D. Maladaptive thought patterns

B. Structural abnormalities and genetic influences

In the DSM-IV-TR, a patient diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder and experiencing homelessness would have these conditions recorded on:

A. Axis I and Axis IV
B. Axis II and Axis IV
C. Axis III and Axis V
D. Axis I and Axis II

B. Axis II and Axis IV

What factor may contribute to the underreporting of mental disorders in Canada, potentially affecting statistics?
A. Lack of diagnostic criteria
B. Cultural stigma around mental health
C. Over-reliance on medication
D. Insufficient health services

B. Cultural stigma around mental health

What percentage of Canadians experience a mental disorder during their lifetime?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 46.4%
D. 60%

B. 20%

Which of the following is an example of comorbidity?
A. An individual with depression develops schizophrenia after five years.
B. A person experiences both anxiety and substance abuse simultaneously.
C. A patient switches from one diagnosis to another.
D. A person no longer meets the criteria for their original diagnosis.

B. A person experiences both anxiety and substance abuse simultaneously.

How does the ICD-10 differ from the DSM system?
A. It focuses exclusively on physical illnesses.
B. It is an international classification system for diseases, including mental disorders.
C. It provides dimensional assessments for mental health severity.
D. It is only used in North America.

B. It is an international classification system for diseases, including mental disorders.

What key contribution did Philippe Pinel make to the understanding of psychological disorders?
A. Development of effective drug therapies
B. Classification of disorders based on symptom patterns
C. Introduction of cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. Establishment of the DSM system

B. Classification of disorders based on symptom patterns

Who is credited with classifying disorders based on symptom patterns, leading to the development of modern diagnostic systems?
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Philippe Pinel
C. Emil Kraepelin
D. Wilhelm Wundt

C. Emil Kraepelin

According to the ancient Greek humoral theory, an excess of black bile was believed to cause:
A. Happiness
B. Depression
C. Anxiety
D. Psychosis

B. Depression

Which of the following treatments was associated with the demonological view of psychological disorders?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Exorcism and trephining
C. Use of antidepressant medication
D. Dream analysis

B. Exorcism and trephining

In the diathesis-stress model, what must occur for a psychological disorder to develop?
A. A stressor occurs without any vulnerability
B. Both a predisposition (diathesis) and a stressor are present
C. Only genetic factors are involved
D. Environmental stress alone is sufficient

B. Both a predisposition (diathesis) and a stressor are present

Which of the following is an example of a diathesis (vulnerability) in the diathesis-stress model?
A. Losing a job
B. A pessimistic personality
C. Experiencing a car accident
D. Moving to a new city

B. A pessimistic personality

Which of the following best defines psychopathological functioning?
A. A disruption in emotional, behavioral, or thought processes leading to personal distress or blockage of important goals
B. An environmental stressor causing temporary discomfort
C. A genetic predisposition to physical illness
D. An individual's capacity for optimal development

A. A disruption in emotional, behavioral, or thought processes leading to personal distress or blockage of important goals

Which of the following is not a symptom of anxiety disorders?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Avoidance of feared situations
C. Recurrent flashbacks of traumatic events
D. Excessive euphoria

D. Excessive euphoria

What are the four common types of symptoms shared by anxiety disorders?
A. Emotional, psychological, cognitive, physical
B. Emotional, cognitive, physiological, behavioural
C. Mental, emotional, physical, spiritual
D. Behavioural, spiritual, emotional, social

B. Emotional, cognitive, physiological, behavioural

What is a hallmark characteristic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A. Persistent fear of social situations
B. Recurrent panic attacks
C. Feeling of anxiety and worry most of the time without specific threats or danger
D. Fear of leaving home

C. Feeling of anxiety and worry most of the time without specific threats or danger

To be diagnosed with GAD (generalized anxiety disorder), symptoms must persist for at least:
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 2 weeks
D. 1 year

B. 6 months

Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
A. Palpitations
B. Sweating
C. Muscle relaxation
D. Trembling

C. Muscle relaxation

What condition is often associated with panic disorder?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Agoraphobia
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobias

B. Agoraphobia

Which of the following is a characteristic of social phobia (social anxiety disorder)?
A. Fear of public places
B. Fear of evaluation or embarrassment in social situations
C. Fear of specific objects or animals
D. Fear of heights

B. Fear of evaluation or embarrassment in social situations

Common specific phobias in Western society include all except:
A. Fear of elevators
B. Fear of injections
C. Fear of loud music
D. Fear of spiders

C. Fear of loud music

Obsessions in OCD are defined as:
A. Ritualized acts that relieve anxiety
B. Persistent, intrusive thoughts or images causing distress
C. A fear of open places
D. Uncontrollable physical movements

B. Persistent, intrusive thoughts or images causing distress

What is the purpose of compulsive behaviors in OCD?
A. To entertain oneself
B. To increase productivity
C. To reduce discomfort caused by obsessions
D. To avoid social interactions

C. To reduce discomfort caused by obsessions

Which of the following is not a symptom of PTSD?
A. Flashbacks
B. Increased startle response
C. Obsessions and compulsions
D. Distressing recollections of trauma

C. Obsessions and compulsions

PTSD is often comorbid with which of the following disorders?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Depression and substance abuse
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Eating disorders

B. Depression and substance abuse

What is a characteristic of a dysphoric mood?
A. Persistent irritability
B. Feeling sad, hopeless, and a loss of pleasure in activities
C. Intense euphoria
D. Rapid mood swings

B. Feeling sad, hopeless, and a loss of pleasure in activities

Which of the following symptoms is not somatic in depression?
A. Loss of appetite
B. Sleep disturbances
C. Guilt
D. Fatigue

C. Guilt

Which cognitive symptom is typical of depression?
A. Optimism about the future
B. Negative thoughts about self, world, and future
C. Obsessive thoughts
D. Delusions of grandeur

B. Negative thoughts about self, world, and future

A major depressive episode requires symptoms to last at least:
A. 6 months
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 1 year

B. 2 weeks

Which of the following symptoms is not required for a diagnosis of major depressive episode?
A. Persistent elevated mood
B. Decrease in enjoyment or interest in activities
C. Daily fatigue
D. Recurrent thoughts of death

A. Persistent elevated mood

Persistent Depressive Disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years

C. 2 years

During the 2-year period in Persistent Depressive Disorder, symptoms cannot be absent for more than:
A. 1 month at a time
B. 2 months at a time
C. 3 months at a time
D. 6 months at a time

B. 2 months at a time

Which neurotransmitter is thought to be involved in anxiety disorders due to low activity in arousal areas?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. GABA
D. Acetylcholine

C. GABA

Which perspective explains anxiety disorders as a result of reinforcement or conditioning?
A. Cognitive
B. Psychodynamic
C. Biological
D. Behavioural

D. Behavioural

Which of the following is an example of a specific phobia?
A) Fear of public speaking
B) Fear of enclosed spaces
C) Fear of leaving home
D) Fear of embarrassment in social settings

B) Fear of enclosed spaces

Which category of specific phobias involves fear of blood, injections, or injuries?
A) Situational phobia
B) Natural environment phobia
C) Blood-injection-injury phobia
D) Animal phobia

C) Blood-injection-injury phobia

Agoraphobia is best described as:
A) Fear of leaving the house.
B) Fear of open or public spaces.
C) Fear of social interactions.
D) Fear of enclosed spaces.

B) Fear of open or public spaces.

PTSD is most commonly comorbid with which of the following disorders?
A) Panic disorder and agoraphobia
B) Depression and substance abuse
C) Social anxiety disorder and OCD
D) GAD and specific phobias

B) Depression and substance abuse

An individual with PTSD and comorbid substance abuse is most likely using substances to:
A) Avoid flashbacks and traumatic memories.
B) Enhance concentration and focus.
C) Improve physical symptoms like fatigue.
D) Increase their startle response.

A) Avoid flashbacks and traumatic memories

According to the psychodynamic perspective, anxiety disorders may arise due to:
A) Low GABA levels in the brain.
B) Subconscious conflicts or forbidden impulses.
C) Faulty reinforcement patterns in behaviour.
D) Genetic predispositions passed down through families.

B) Subconscious conflicts or forbidden impulses.

A psychodynamic therapist might attribute OCD to:

A) Faulty cognition related to overestimating danger.
B) Unresolved conflicts creating anxiety, managed by compulsive acts.
C) Learned behaviours reinforced by temporary relief of discomfort.
D) A biological deficiency in serotonin levels.

B) Unresolved conflicts creating anxiety, managed by compulsive acts.

Which of the following cognitive patterns is commonly associated with anxiety disorders?
A) Misinterpretation of harmless situations as threatening
B) Repression of emotional trauma
C) Overactive production of stress hormones
D) Increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters

A) Misinterpretation of harmless situations as threatening

According to cognitive theory, an individual with social anxiety disorder is most likely to:
A) Underestimate their ability to cope in social settings.
B) Avoid social interactions due to a learned fear of others.
C) Have unresolved conflicts with authority figures.
D) Suffer from a serotonin imbalance in the brain.

A) Underestimate their ability to cope in social settings.

The cognitive model of anxiety disorders emphasizes which of the following?
A) The role of early childhood experiences in developing phobias.
B) Neurobiological abnormalities in the amygdala.
C) Distorted thinking patterns that heighten perceptions of threat.
D) Evolutionary predispositions to fear specific stimuli.

C) Distorted thinking patterns that heighten perceptions of threat.

What is a characteristic feature of a manic episode in bipolar disorder?
a) Increased need for sleep
b) Decreased need for sleep
c) Persistent sadness
d) Avoidance of risk-taking

b) Decreased need for sleep

Which neurotransmitters are linked to mood disorders such as depression and mania?
a) Dopamine and glutamate
b) GABA and acetylcholine
c) Serotonin and norepinephrine
d) Endorphins and oxytocin

c) Serotonin and norepinephrine

According to Seligman's attribution theory, what pattern is associated with learned helplessness?
a) External, unstable, specific
b) Internal, stable, global
c) Internal, unstable, specific
d) External, stable, global

b) Internal, stable, global

Which of the following is an example of a somatic symptom disorder?
a) Belief in impending physical illness despite medical reassurances
b) Flashbacks to a traumatic event
c) Preoccupation with order and symmetry
d) Loss of interest in previously enjoyable activities

a) Belief in impending physical illness despite medical reassurances

What is the required symptom set for diagnosing Somatic Symptom Disorder?
a) 4 pain symptoms, 2 gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, and 1 neurological symptom
b) 2 gastrointestinal symptoms and 2 motor symptoms
c) 1 pain symptom and 3 cognitive symptoms
d) 5 neurological symptoms

a) 4 pain symptoms, 2 gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, and 1 neurological symptom

Dissociative fugue involves:
a) Loss of sensory functioning without physical cause
b) Forgetting personal experiences due to organic dysfunction
c) A period of wandering with memory loss and a change of identity
d) Recurrent, intrusive thoughts causing distress

c) A period of wandering with memory loss and a change of identity

What theory explains the development of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?
a) Learned helplessness theory
b) Trauma dissociation theory
c) Attribution theory
d) Diathesis-stress hypothesis

b) Trauma dissociation theory

Which of the following is NOT considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
a) Delusions
b) Hallucinations
c) Disorganized thinking
d) Flat affect

d) Flat affect

What is a biological marker associated with schizophrenia?
a) Enlarged ventricles and loss of cortical tissue
b) Reduced serotonin and norepinephrine activity
c) Increased activity in the occipital lobe
d) Overactivation of the autonomic nervous system

a) Enlarged ventricles and loss of cortical tissue

According to the diathesis-stress hypothesis, what triggers schizophrenia?
a) Exclusive genetic predisposition
b) Psychological conflicts during childhood
c) Environmental factors interacting with genetic vulnerabilities
d) Lack of neurotransmitter activity

c) Environmental factors interacting with genetic vulnerabilities

Which type of schizophrenia is characterized by significant motor disturbances?
a) Paranoid schizophrenia
b) Disorganized schizophrenia
c) Catatonic schizophrenia
d) Undifferentiated schizophrenia

c) Catatonic schizophrenia

Which of the following best describes the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorders?

A) Bipolar I includes only depressive episodes, while Bipolar II involves manic episodes.

B) Bipolar I includes severe manic episodes lasting at least one week, while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes that are less severe.

C) Bipolar I involves both depressive and manic episodes of equal severity, while Bipolar II includes only depressive episodes.

D) Bipolar II includes longer depressive episodes compared to Bipolar I.

B) Bipolar I includes severe manic episodes lasting at least one week, while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes that are less severe.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder)?

A) Loss of sensory or motor function that cannot be explained by medical conditions.

B) Symptoms like paralysis, blindness, or mutism without a physical cause.

C) The individual has a preoccupation with thoughts of being physically ill despite medical reassurances.

D) Symptoms are usually triggered by severe stress or trauma.

C) The individual has a preoccupation with thoughts of being physically ill despite medical reassurances. ( this description is more suited to hypochondriasis or Somatic Symptom Disorder)

Which of the following is characteristic of the "Paranoid" subtype of schizophrenia?

A) Severe disorganization in speech and behavior.

B) Delusions and hallucinations that center around a theme of persecution or grandeur.

C) Significant motor impairment, such as catatonia or immobility.

D) Extreme emotional flattening with little verbal communication.

B) Delusions and hallucinations that center around a theme of persecution or grandeur.

What is the most likely cause of a person experiencing schizophrenia, according to the diathesis-stress hypothesis?

A) Environmental factors alone, such as a traumatic childhood experience.

B) A genetic predisposition that interacts with environmental stressors, like lack of support or traumatic life events.

C) Solely biological factors, such as abnormalities in the brain's structure or neurotransmitter activity.

D) Socioeconomic factors that contribute to emotional instability.

B) A genetic predisposition that interacts with environmental stressors, like lack of support or traumatic life events.

Which of the following best describes Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

A) The presence of multiple distinct personalities within one individual, typically caused by childhood trauma or stress.

B) A temporary state where an individual loses memory of their personal information after a traumatic event.

C) A type of amnesia caused by medical conditions, leading to memory loss and confusion.

D) An emotional reaction to prolonged stress, often leading to dissociation from reality.

A) The presence of multiple distinct personalities within one individual, typically caused by childhood trauma or stress.