1/41
Practice flashcards in Q&A style covering the breadth of gynecology lecture notes, including anatomy, infections, oncology, endocrine, and general surgical procedures.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai | Chat |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
What are the four common causes of primary amenorrhea mentioned in the lecture?
What are 4 outflow tract disorders that cause cryptomenorrhea?
List 4 clinical manifestations of an imperforate hymen.
What are the four lines of treatment for imperforate hymen?
Identify 4 pathological causes of secondary amenorrhea.
What 4 methods are used in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea?
What are 4 clinical features associated with Turner syndrome?
What are the typical investigations and results for Turner syndrome?
What are the 4 common clinical findings in PCOS?
Describe the hormonal assay findings and Adams criteria for PCOS on Ultrasound.
Hormonal: Raised LH/low FSH (1:2 ratio), raised E1, insulin, and androgens. Adams criteria: (1) Enlarged ovaries, (2) dense central stroma, (3) 'necklace appearance' of small follicles (2−10mm).
What are the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing PCOS?
A diagnosis requires at least 2 of 3: chronic anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and U/S picture of polycystic ovaries.
Name 4 complications of PCOS.
What are the medical and surgical treatments for PCOS?
Medical: Ovulation induction, anti-androgens, COCPs, and Metformin (500mg/day). Surgical: Laparoscopic ovarian drilling to reduce androgen production.
Enumerate 4 causes of hyperprolactinemia.
What are the threshold values for Serum Prolactin (PRL) regarding diagnosis?
>29ng/ml indicates hyperprolactinemia; ≥100ng/ml suggests a tumor.
Name 4 drugs used to treat hyperprolactinemia.
What are the 4 main categories of female infertility and their frequencies?
List 4 investigations for semen analysis (male infertility).
Define Azoospermia, Oligozoospermia, Asthenozoospermia, and Teratozoospermia.
Azoospermia: No sperms; Oligozoospermia: count <15 million/ml; Asthenozoospermia: decreased motility; Teratozoospermia: abnormal forms >85%.
What 4 tests are used to detect ovulation?
What are the 4 indications for Clomiphene citrate?
What are the 4 lines of treatment for precocious puberty?
Describe the hormonal changes associated with menopause.
Reversed E2:E1 ratio (1:2), raised FSH (∼30mIU/ml) and LH (∼20mIU/ml), raised free testosterone, and decreased serum inhibin.
What are the major clinical manifestations of menopause?
List 4 risk factors for postmenopausal osteoporosis.
How is osteoporosis investigated and diagnosed?
DEXA (Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry) scan is the main diagnostic investigation; clinical assessment for decreased height or pathological fractures is also used.
What causes endometriosis-associated infertility?
PGF2α causes anovulation and increased tubal/uterine motility (preventing implantation), and peritoneal macrophages engulf sperms via phagocytosis.
What are the symptoms and 'Gold Standard' investigation for endometriosis?
Symptoms: Crescendo–decrescendo dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility. Gold Standard investigation: Laparoscopy.
Define the degrees of Uterine Prolapse.
1st,2nd, and 3rd degree, with procidentia meaning the entire uterus including the fundus is outside the vulva.
What is the difference between Stress Incontinence and Urge Incontinence?
Stress Incontinence (SUI) is leakage on straining due to sphincter weakness; Urge Incontinence is a sudden urge with inability to delay due to an overactive bladder.
What are the three types of fibroids based on site?
What are the indications for a Myomectomy?
Explain the Methylene blue (MB) test for Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF).
200ml of MB is injected into the bladder with 3 gauze pieces in the vagina; a blue stain on the upper/middle piece indicates VVF.
What are the absolute contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (COCs)?
Describe Broder's classification for gynecological malignancy grading.
Grade 1: Well differentiated (<5% undifferentiated); Grade 2: Moderately differentiated (5−50% undifferentiated); Grade 3: Poorly or Undifferentiated (>50% undifferentiated).
What are the primary risk factors for cancer of the cervix?
Age (45−55 yrs invasive), multiparity, low socioeconomic class, and HPV types 16, 18, 31, 33 \text{ & } 35.
Distinguish between clinical and surgical staging in gynecological cancers.
Cancer of the cervix uses clinical staging, whereas cancer of the endometrium uses surgical staging.
What is 'Corpus Cancer Syndrome'?
A combination of obesity, diabetes mellitus (DM), and hypertension associated with endometrial cancer.
What is Meig's syndrome?
The triad of Fibroma of the ovary, right hydrothorax, and ascites.
Name the 4 natural barriers against ascending genital tract infections.
What are the investigations for Bacterial Vaginosis?
Briefly describe the pelvic course of the ureter and its surgical significance.
The ureter enters at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery, runs on the lateral pelvic wall, and passes under the uterine artery ('water under the bridge'). It is at risk of injury during hysterectomy.