PMI Exam 2

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43 Terms

1
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The best tool to use for perceptual assessment of speech, resonance, and voice is

A) Videofluoroscopy

B) Nasoendoscopy

C) the examiner's ear

D) Electropalatography

the examiner's ear

2
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You evaluate a 3 year old in the clinic who is demonstrating consistent hypernasality during connected speech. Which professional would you refer the client to for further medical examination?

ENT

GI

Cardiovascular

Physical Therapist

ENT

3
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Which series of numbers is best to use when testing for HYPOnasality?

50s

90s

70s

80s

30s

90s

4
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If you use the nasal cul-de-sac test and you hear a difference on production of a vowel, this confirms the diagnosis of which of the following?

Hypernasality

Hyponasality

Cul-de-sac resonance

Nasal emission

Hypernasality

5
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Which of the following instruments is the least reliable in assessing hypernasality and nasal emission?

Straw

Listening tube

Dental mirror

Stethoscope

Dental mirror

6
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What is the most common cause of the spread of infection in healthcare settings?

Providers not wearing gloves when appropriate

Providers not following proper handwashing guidelines

Medical equipment that is not properly disinfected

Medical equipment that is not properly sterilized

Providers not following proper handwashing guidelines

7
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The shape of the palate should be evaluated in relationship to which of the following?

The position of the mandible

The position of the maxilla

The size and movement of the tongue

Dental occlusion

The size and movement of the tongue

8
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When do tonsils create a concern for speech production?

When they extend beyond the faucial pillars

When they are absent

When they are asymmetrical

When they are visible

When they extend beyond the faucial pillars

9
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Surgery is NEVER indicated for which of the following:

Velopharyngeal Mislearning

Velopharyngeal incompetence

Velopharyngeal Insufficiency

Nasal Emission

Velopharyngeal Mislearning

10
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At what age does an SLP usually complete a more comprehensive speech, language, and resonance evaluation for a patient with a history of cleft palate?

Birth

3-4

18

1-2

3-4

11
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Aerodynamics

an indirect measure of airflow

12
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Nasometry

can measure nasality in speech (nasalance score)

13
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Nasopharyngoscopy

provides a high resolution view of the VP port

14
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Videofluoroscopy

an X-ray imaging technique with simultaneous audio for speech

15
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All the following are true about interpretation of nasalance EXCEPT

A) Normal oral resonance is typically under 20 percent

B) Clear Hypernasality is > 40%

C) Mild hypernasality is indicated by a score of 30%-40%

D) The higher the contour is on the screen, the more hyponasality to expect

D) The higher the contour is on the screen, the more hyponasality to expect

16
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Abnormally low data points on a nasogram are indicative of:

A) Upper Airway Obstruction

B) Hyponasality

C) Both A & B

D) Hypernasality

C) Both A & B

17
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Which videofluoroscopy view is done to only view the lateral pharyngeal walls?

A) Lateral view

B) Frontal view

C) Base view

D) Oblique view

B) Frontal view

18
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All the following are easily viewed through videofluoroscopy EXCEPT

A) Relationship between the posterior pharyngeal wall and velum

B) Length of the velum and its upward movement

C) Small or unilateral gaps

D) Posterior wall of the pharynx during closure

E) Movement of the tongue

C) Small or unilateral gaps

19
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Where should you insert the scope when evaluating velopharyngeal function when completing a nasopharyngoscopy?

A) Inferior meatus

B) Superior meatus

C) Middle meatus

C) Middle meatus

20
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Nasopharyngoscopy can be used:

A) During a treatment session for biofeedback

B) To assess swallowing issues

C) During surgery

D) During nasometry

A) During a treatment session for biofeedback

21
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A disadvantage of nasopharyngoscopy is that it allows the examiner to see all the following EXCEPT

A) Adenoid tissue

B) Nasal surface of velum

C) Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall

D) Oronasal fistula

E) Vocal cords

C) Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall

22
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<p>Which videofluoroscopy view is shown in the following picture?</p><p>A) Lateral view</p><p>B) Frontal view</p><p>C) Base view</p><p>D) Oblique view</p>

Which videofluoroscopy view is shown in the following picture?

A) Lateral view

B) Frontal view

C) Base view

D) Oblique view

C) Base view

23
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What is the biggest advantage of using a standardized passage to gather nasometric data?

A) The passage can be read by the individual rather than repeated

B) It is easier to administer because it is well-known by the examiner

C) The patient's score can be compared to normative data

D) The passage is designed to contain only certain sounds to make it easier to produce

C) The patient's score can be compared to normative data

24
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Why is palate surgery more difficult than lip surgery?

A) It is technically more demanding

B) There is a greater risk of dehiscence

C) There is a greater risk of fistula formation

D) All of the above

D) All of the above

25
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What is a common secondary surgical procedure for correction of velopharyngeal insufficiency?

A) Palatoplasty

B) Pharyngeal flap

C) Abbe flap

D) Palatal lift

B) Pharyngeal flap

26
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Which type of cleft palate surgery does NOT focus on the velum?

A) Von Langenbeck

B) Wardill-Kilner

C) Both A & B

D) Furlow Z-palatoplasty

C) Both A & B

27
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The earliest age that a pharyngoplasty for VPI is usually done is:  

A) Age 1

B) Age 2

C) Age 3

D) Age 4

C) Age 3

28
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All of the following are potential complications of cleft palate surgery EXCEPT: 

A) Airway Compromise

B) Oral Aversiveness

C) Post-op Dehiscence

D) Cleft Lip

D) Cleft Lip

29
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The timing of a bone graft is dependent on which of the following?

 A) Type of cleft

B) Child’s dental and maxillary development

C) Presence of a crossbite

D) Presence of a nasolabial fistula

B) Child’s dental and maxillary development

30
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Which term refers to the surgical repair of a cleft palate?

A) Le Fort advancement

B) Palatoplasty

C) Bone graft

D) Osteotomy

B) Palatoplasty

31
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Which term refers to surgical repair of cleft lip? 

A) Pharyngoplasty

B) Palatoplasty

C) Cheilorraphy

D) Orthognathic surgery

C) Cheilorraphy

32
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 A prosthetic device that covers or fills a cleft or fistula to improve speech is called: 

A) Pharyngeal flap

B) Palatal Lift

C) Dental Bridge

D) Palatal Obturator

D) Palatal Obturator

33
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All of the following can improve VPI EXCEPT:

A) Pharyngeal Flap

B) Alveolar Bone Grafting

C) Pharyngeal Wall Augmentation

D) Sphincter Pharyngoplasty

B) Alveolar Bone Grafting

34
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What speech sound should be inserted between the consonant and the vowel when trying to eliminate glottal stops? (Think continuous speech to eliminate a stop).

A) /m/

B) /s/

C) /h/

D) /z/

C) /h/

35
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Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy?

A) Hypernasality due to VPI

B) Compensatory productions secondary to VPI

C) Obligatory distortions secondary to VPI

D) Nasal emission due to VPI

B) Compensatory productions secondary to VPI

36
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Which of the following is appropriate for correction of compensatory errors following correction of VPI?

A) Blowing exercises

B) Sucking exercises

C) Velopharyngeal exercises

D) Articulation therapy

D) Articulation therapy

37
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All these rules are usually correct for correction of speech sound errors EXCEPT

A) Begin with anterior sounds

B) Change one feature at a time when moving from one sound in a group to the next sound

C) Establish correct placement and manner of productions in isolation

D) Begin with the sound in the final word position

D) Begin with the sound in the final word position

38
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What is the best way to correct phoneme-specific nasal emission on /s/?

A) CPAP

B) Blowing and sucking exercises

C) Oral-motor exercises

D) Changing articulation placement

D) Changing articulation placement

39
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Pushing under the child’s chin may help the child to achieve appropriate placement for which group of sounds?

A) Sibilants

B) Lingual-alveolars and /l/

C) Velars

D) Plosives

C) Velars

40
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Which of the following should never be used to treat speech sound disorders?

A) Auditory feedback

B) Tactile feedback

C) Oral-motor exercises

D) Visual feedback

C) Oral-motor exercises

41
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A feeding obturator is capable of all the following EXCEPT

A) Helping an infant to achieve lip closure

B) Keeping the tongue from resting inside of the cleft

C) Covering an infant’s unrepaired cleft during feeding

D) Separating the oral cavity from the nasal cavity

A) Helping an infant to achieve lip closure

42
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Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?

A) Craniofacial surgeon, Orthodontist, speech-language pathologist 

B) Plastic surgeon, orthodontist, speech-language pathologist, and one other professional

C) Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist

D) Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist, one other professional

B) Plastic surgeon, orthodontist, speech-language pathologist, and one other professional

43
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The members care for patients independently, with limited communication

A) Consulting team 

B) Interdisciplinary team

C) Multidisciplinary team

D) Transdisciplinary team

C) Multidisciplinary team