RPSGT 2024 Full Practice Test

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Answers only, no explanations. See "RPSGT 2024 Full Practice Test with Explanations"

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391 Terms

1
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In diagnosing sleep-related breathing disorders, what is the primary purpose of a polysomnogram (PSG)?

Evaluating changes in brain wave activity

2
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Which of the following is NOT an indication for performing a polysomnogram in adults?

Diagnosis of restless leg syndrome

3
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For diagnosing insomnia, which aspect of a patient’s history is crucial?

Detailed sleep habits

4
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What is the primary purpose of maintaining a sleep diary?

Recording sleep & wake patterns

5
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What is the most common type of circadian rhythm disorder?

Delayed sleep-wake disorder

6
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In which type of sleep-disordered breathing does the brain have difficulty controlling breathing?

Central sleep apnea

7
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Which medication effect is a risk factor for sleep-related hypoventilation?

Benzodiazepines

8
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What is a potential complication of chronic use of respiratory depressants?

Pulmonary artery hypertension

9
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Which step is crucial for fostering a supportive environment during patient orientation?

Introducing to ward staff

10
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When planning clinical orientation for new clinicians, what is a key consideration?

Ensuring stakeholder engagement

11
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In older adults, what is the most common sleep complaint?

Sleep maintenance insomnia

12
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In elderly patients, what is the recommended initial treatment for insomnia?

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I)

13
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Which questionnaire assesses a patient’s propensity for daytime sleepiness?

Epworth Sleepiness Scale

14
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What is the maximum total score on the Epworth Sleepiness Scale?

24

15
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For implementing pediatric sleep staging rules, what is the recommended minimum age?

2 months post-term

16
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To promote better sleep hygiene, which activity is advised to avoid before bedtime?

Watching TV

17
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For individuals who feel angry & frustrated due to their sleepiness, what is the recommended action for them?

Get up, turn on the light, & engage in a different activity

18
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What tryptophan-containing substance is recommended as a light snack to aid sleep?

Turkey sandwich

19
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What does “sleep therapy compliance” primarily refer to?

Adhering to CPAP usage

20
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For CPAP compliance in the first 90 days, how many hours per night and nights per month are generally required?

4 hours per night, 70% of nights in a 30 day period

21
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What is a general suggestion for patients struggling to adjust a CPAP mask when wearing it?

Practice wearing the mask around the house

22
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How should patients deal with minor problems such as waking up with red marks or mask removal during sleep?

Make small adjustments to the mask fit

23
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What is the main purpose of a home sleep apnea test?

Evaluate sleep-wake patterns

24
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In which condition should a home sleep apnea test NOT be conducted?

Presence of pulmonary diseases

25
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What is the main objective of actigraphy?

Monitor physical movement

26
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After wearing a mask with airflow for 1-2 hours during rest activities, what is the next stage of PAP desensitization?

Wear the mask during a short nap

27
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How can individuals desensitize to the sound of CPAP/Bi-PAP therapy?

Run the device during sleep without the mask

28
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What action is suggested to alleviate nasal congestion during CPAP therapy?

Use a saline nasal spray before sleep

29
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What is the primary purpose of desensitization to PAP therapy?

Overcoming discomfort & anxiety associated with therapy

30
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In patients with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), what is the primary goal of CPAP therapy?

To decrease the work of breathing

31
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To reduce patient discomfort during exhalation, which feature of PAP machines is specifically designed?

Pressure relief technologies

32
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Which PAP interface option is generally recommended in patients with nasal congestion?

Full face mask

33
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Over a fixed-pressure CPAP machine, what is the primary advantage of an Automatic Primary Airway Pressure device?

Automatically adjusts pressure levels

34
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What is the primary reason for downloading data from positive airway pressure (PAP) devices?

To monitor adherence and efficacy of therapy

35
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Which of the following methods is NOT commonly used to access data from PAP devices?

Fax machines

36
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To define adherence to CPAP therapy, what parameter is used?

Usage for greater than or equal to 4 hours per night for greater than or equal to 70% of nights

37
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In a polysomnogram, how many channels are typically recorded?

12

38
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During sleep studies, what method is NOT commonly used to measure respiratory effort during sleep studies?

Thermistor placed in front of nostrils

39
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In a polysomnography analyzer, what is the primary function of the time code generator?

Coordinate different readings during significant events

40
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Where is the ground electrode typically placed when applying EEG scalp electrodes using the 10-20 system?

Left mastoid bone

41
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For optimal recording, which step is essential in preparing electrode sites?

Communicating with the patient about the process

42
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What PAP interface option is most suitable in the event of nasal obstruction?

Oronasal

43
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In site preparation, which of the following is a crucial step for a sleep study?

Verifying the medical order and patient history

44
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According to accepted standards, what is the primary purpose of applying electrodes and sensors in polysomnography?

To facilitate data collection and analysis

45
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What action should be taken to address patient-specific needs during sleep study preparation?

Analyzing and integrating patient information

46
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Before a sleep study, what is the primary purpose of equipment calibration?

To verify proper functioning

47
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What is a standard physiological calibration which is performed during a sleep study?

Ensuring proper electrode placement

48
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During PAP compliance download, which parameter is crucial for monitoring?

Total leak

49
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What is a montage in polysomnography?

An arrangement of recording channel selections

50
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Why is the selection of the correct montage crucial during set up?

Because it cannot be changed once recording starts

51
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In a sleep study facility, what is a recommended practice for preventing cross-contamination?

Having separate areas for clean and dirty equipment

52
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In a sleep study setup, which statement describes the handling of reusable items?

Reusable items must be disinfected according to manufacturer guidelines

53
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In PSG based on the International 10-20 system, what EEG derivation is typically recommended for routine use?

C4-M1

54
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In EEG monitoring, what placement is recommended for the reference electrodes?

At Fpz

55
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Where should the chin EMG electrodes be placed for a PSG?

On the mentalis muscle

56
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For pediatric polysomnography, what is the recommended arrival time?

Between 8 pm - 9 pm

57
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During pediatric polysomnography, which bodily function is monitored?

Brain waves, eye movements, muscle tension, breathing, heart rate, and oxygen levels

58
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Before undergoing a sleep study, what should be avoided for pediatric patients?

Caffeinated drinks after lunch

59
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What should be the starting time of the initial nap opportunity for the MLST?

1 to 2 hours after waking

60
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What minimum total sleep time is recommended on the night before an MLST to support a narcolepsy diagnosis?

More than 6 hours

61
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In the MSLT, how many nap opportunities are usually provided?

5

62
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What sleep disorder involves repetition of pauses in breathing during sleep?

Sleep apnea

63
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Before an MWT, what information should patients share with sleep specialists?

CPAP data

64
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What is the recommended duration for patients to avoid changing medication before MWT?

2 weeks

65
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What is the primary purpose of Home Sleep Apnea Testing (HSAT)?

To evaluate patients for obstructive sleep apnea in a home setting

66
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What is a contraindication for HSAT?

Patients with uncontrolled hypertension

67
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When a patient undergoes HSAT, what should be included in the documentation?

Date and time of equipment pick-up and return

68
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What EEG pattern is characteristic of absence seizures?

Spike and wave

69
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Which of the following EEG abnormality is associated with benign focal epilepsy of childhood?

Centro-temporal spikes

70
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What EEG hallmark is indicative of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

Slow spike and waves

71
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In polysomnography, what is the primary purpose of biocalibration?

To ensure proper functioning of recording equipment

72
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Which artifact is characterized by long duration, high-amplitude shifts in electrical potential due to perspiration?

Sweat artifact

73
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In polysomnography equipment, what is the purpose of a patient ground electrode?

To improve common mode rejection and reduce electrical interference

74
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During acclimation, what is the main purpose of gradually introducing PAP therapy to patients?

To minimize discomfort and facilitate patient adaptation

75
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What physiological information does ECG primarily provide during cardio-respiratory polysomnography?

Autonomic nervous system activity

76
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In polysomnography, what is the purpose of the high-frequency filter?

To attenuate signals above a certain frequency

77
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By the low-frequency filter (LFF) setting, which parameter is directly controlled?

Time constant

78
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What happens to the recorded signal when the sensitivity setting is set high?

Amplifies voltage

79
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In EEG & EOG channels during polysomnography, what is the recommended upper limit for electrode impedance?

5,000 ohms

80
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During polysomnography, which of the following statements regarding the limitations of impedance pneumography is true?

No standards exist for signal reproductions representing changes in thoriac impedance

81
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In polysomnography, what is the acceptable impedance range for EEG, EOG, & EMG electrodes?

< 10k ohms

82
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If the impedance of any pair of electrodes (excluding ECG) exceeds 10k ohms, what action should be taken?

Remove, re-prep, & replace the electrode

83
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What waveform must be followed by an arousal to transition to stage N1, in scoring stage N2 sleep?

K complex

84
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What features distinguish an epoch that is scored as stage R sleep?

Low chin EMG tone

85
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If an epoch contains both slow eye movements & rapid eye movements, how is an epoch scored?

Stage W

86
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Which EEG frequency range characterizes delta waves according to scoring rules?

0-3.99 Hz

87
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During a polysomnography, what defines respiratory effort-related arousal (RERA)?

Flattening of PAP device flow waveform

88
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What additional criteria is required when scoring arousals during REM sleep?

Increased sub mental EMG

89
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During non-REM sleep stages, which EEG frequency pattern indicates arousal?

Frequencies below 16 Hz

90
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During REM sleep, what EEG frequency pattern characterizes arousal?

Alpha-theta waves

91
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During a polysomnography, how is a hypopnea duration measured?

From the nadir preceding reduced breathing to the next breath reaching baseline

92
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During polysomnography, what is necessary for scoring a hypopnea event?

30% decrease in airflow

93
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What event requires the activation of the Emergency Response System?

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

94
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As an apnea, what is the key criteria for scoring a respiratory event?

90% drop in signal excursion

95
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When should an apnea be scored as mixed?

When there’s a resumption in inspiratory effort

96
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How should hypopneas be scored?

With a 30% drop in signal excursion and a 2-3% desaturation

97
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What is criteria for scoring a central hypopnea?

Absence of snoring

98
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In a PLMS series, what defines a candidate leg movement event for possible inclusion?

All the above (Duration of 5-10 seconds, amplitude of 8 uV above resting EMG, occurrence in a sleep epoch)

99
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To define a PLMS series, how many consecutive leg movements are needed?

5-90 seconds

100
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In polysomnography, what characterizes bruxism?

All of the above (sustained elevations of chin EMG activity, brief elevations of chin or masseter EMG)