FINAL NET

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the function of a switch?

a. It determines the path used based on the destination IP address.

b. It sends broadcast frames out all connected ports except the port where the frame was received.

c. Each port on a switch represents a separate collision domain.

d. Switches have the ability to operate in full-duplex mode.

a. It determines the path used based on the destination IP address.

Which of the following combinations will you find in a switching table?

a. application/destination port number

b. IP address/exit interface

c. destination network/next Hop

d. MAC address/switch port number

d. MAC address/switch port number

Which of the following is the fastest switching mode?

a. cut-through

b. fragment-free

c. store-and-forward

d. auto-negotiate

a. cut-through

Which switching method reads a minimum of 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame?

a. cut-through

b. fragment-free

c. store-and-forward

d. auto-negotiate

b. fragment-free

You have four switches, A, B, C, and D. Switch A is connected to Switch C and Switch B is connected to Switch D. Furthermore, Switch A and B are connected and Switch C and D are connected. One of the connections is in blocking mode. What protocol must be running on the switches?

a. RIP

b. SNMP

c. NTP

d. STP

d. STP

Which of the following is NOT a function that would be found in a managed switch?

a. the ability to stop switching loops using STP

b. the ability to transfer its switching table with neighboring switches

c. the creation of VLANS to logically separate resources

d. to limit access to the network by enabling security on individual ports

b. the ability to transfer its switching table with neighboring switches

Your colleagues are discussing the operation of a device in which packets are routed between VLANs on the device rather than having to exit the device to be routed. What type of device are they most likely discussing?

a. access point

b. managed switch

c. Layer 3 switch

d. router

c. Layer 3 switch

When a router's interface is configured to connect with a switch trunk port to route packets between VLANs, what is this called?

a. multi-homed router

b. dynamic router

c. link-state router

d. router on a stick

d. router on a stick

In which type of routing protocol is a router's routing table copied to neighboring routers to share internetwork information?

a. distance-state protocol

b. link-state protocol

c. hybrid protocol

d. distance-vector protocol

d. distance-vector protocol

What has occurred when all routers in a network have accurate information after a change in the network?

a. delivery

b. convergence

c. congestion

d. concurrence

b. convergence

Which of the following is a common link-state routing protocol?

a. OSPF

b. RIPv2

c. EIGRP

d. BGP

a. OSPF

What command issued from a command prompt will display the routing table in Windows?

a. route table

b. route print

c. route delete

d. route config

b. route print

What category of routing protocol is used to route packets between autonomous systems?

a. distance-vector

b. link-state

c. EGP

d. IGP

c. EGP

What type of hacker uses a scanning device to find unsecured wireless networks and breaks into those networks?

a. white hat

b. wardriver

c. script kiddy

d. phisher

b. wardriver

In general, what level of security should you use with your access points?

a. the easiest to configure

b. wireless encryption protocol

c. the most secure your systems supports

d. RADIUS

c. the most secure your systems supports

What is the name of the value assigned to a routing protocol to indicate its reliability compared with other routing protocols that might be in use on the same router?

a. metric

b. administrative distance

c. hop count

d. ACL

b. administrative distance

Which advanced feature of a NIC allows a computer to download an OS from the network instead of from a local drive?

a. onboard coprocessor

b. advanced configuration power management interface

c. shared system memory

d. preboot execution environment

d. preboot execution environment

Which of the following is NOT a guideline of a security policy?

a. easy for users to understand

b. should be enforceable

c. uses legal terminology to protect the organization

d. clearly states the policy objectives

c. uses legal terminology to protect the organization

What type of policy defines the methods involved when a user sign in to the network?

a. audit

b. security

c. authentication

d. acceptable use

c. authentication

Which facet of securing access to network data makes data unusable to anyone except authorized users?

a. encryption

b. authentication

c. malware protection

d. security devices

a. encryption

Which Windows domain-based protocol provides mutual authentication between devices?

a. Kerberos

b. TACACS+

c. EAP

d. RADIUS

a. Kerberos

If the minimum password length on a Windows system is set to zero, what does that mean?

a. The user never has to change the password.

b. The user can use a blank password.

c. The user has to change the password every day.

d. The user account is disabled.

b. The user can use a blank password.

Which protocol works by establishing an association between two communicating devices and can use a preshared key for authentication?

a. EFS

b. Kerberos

c. IPsec

d. SMB

c. IPsec

Which form of authentication involves the exchange of a password-like key that must be entered on both devices?

a. Kerberos authentication

b. digital certificate

c. GNU privacy guard

d. preshared key

d. preshared key

Which standard feature on NTFS-formatted disks encrypts individual files and uses a certificate matching the user account of the user who encrypted the file?

a. IPsec

b. BitLocker

c. GPG

d. EFS

d. EFS

What is created when a packet is encapsulated with additional headers to allow an encrypted packet to be correctly routed by Internet devices?

a. frame

b. EFS

c. tunnel

d. access point

c. tunnel

Which VPN implementation typically needs no additional firewall configuration to be allowed access through the firewall?

a. SSTP

b. IPSec

c. PPTP

d. L2TP

a. SSTP

What process, available on most routers, will help improve security by replacing the internal IP address of the transmitting device with a public IP address?

a. IPSec

b. NAT

c. EFS

d. VPN

b. NAT

What can firewalls do to help ensure that a packet is denied if it's not part of an ongoing legitimate conversation?

a. intrusion detection

b. MAC filtering

c. content filter

d. stateful packet inspection

d. stateful packet inspection

You have purchased a network-based IDS. You have been tasked with deploying the device in a location where the entire network can be protected. Where should you deploy it?

a. datacenter

b. intermediate distribution frame

c. demilitarized zone

d. internal LAN

c. demilitarized zone

What type of device should you install as a decoy to lure potential attackers?

a. honeypot

b. Trojan

c. IPS

d. HIDS

a. honeypot

What is a type of malware that is so difficult to detect and remove that most experts agree that it is better to backup your critical data and reinstall the OS?

a. rootkit

b. Trojan

c. hoax virus

d. spyware

a. rootkit

Which of the following is a type of malware that isn't self-replicating and is usually installed by the user without his knowledge. It's primary goal is to invade your privacy by monitoring your system and reporting your activities to advertisers and spammers.

a. rootkit

b. Trojan

c. hoax virus

d. spyware

d. spyware

You have been asked to determine what services are accessible on your network so you can close those that are not necessary. What tool should you use?

a. port scanner

b. protocol finder

c. ping scanner

d. trace route

a. port scanner

Which of the following is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves flooding the network with broadcast messages that contain a spoofed source address of an intended victim?

a. packet storm

b. broadcast flood

c. smurf attack

d. half-open SYN attack

c. smurf attack

Your local ISP has provided you with a dedicated line that has a Committed Information Rate of 1.54 Mbps. What does this mean?

a. 1.54 Mbps is the highest amount of bandwidth the link can use.

b. 1.54 Mbps is available for burst network traffic only.

c. 1.54 Mbps is the guaranteed minimum transmission rate.

d. The dedicated line is using X.25

c. 1.54 Mbps is the guaranteed minimum transmission rate.

Select the true statement regarding analog and digital signals.

a. Analog signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while digital signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.

b. Digital signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while analog signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.

c. A modem is not required to transmit LAN data over a WAN link that uses analog signals.

d. On fiber optic media, a 1 bit can be represented as a pulsing analog signal.

a. Analog signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while digital signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.

When would you most likely NOT choose to use a leased line connection?

a. when high-quality, 24/7 access is needed

b. for mission critical applications

c. when fast upstream as well as downstream communications is required

d. when the link is only needed as a backup connection

d. when the link is only needed as a backup connection

Which of the following is something X.25 does NOT offer?

a. SVCs

b. PVCs

c. error checking and retransmission

d. 144 Mbps maximum throughput

d. 144 Mbps maximum throughput

What is the local loop, or last mile?

a. the connection used between central offices

b. cable between the customer premise equipment and a PC

c. a line used by ISPs for testing T-carrier signals.

d. the connection between the demarcation point and the CO

d. the connection between the demarcation point and the CO

You're the network administrator for a large bean-bag chair company. You are presenting to your supervisor several reasons to make use of cloud computing for handling data processing. Which answer would be a valid benefit of using cloud computing?

a. always on, always available access independent of network status

b. reduced physical plant costs

c. increased use of localized resources

d. decrease in user application training time

b. reduced physical plant costs

Which of the following terms describes the category of cloud computing in which a customer develops applications using development tools and infrastructure provided by the service provider?

a. Infrastructure as a service

b. Software as a service

c. Platform as a service

d. Network as a service

c. Platform as a service

Which of the following protocols is NOT used for Windows 10 VPN connections?

a. SMTP

b. PPTP

c. L2TP

d. SSTP

a. SMTP

Which of the following is NOT true about Ethernet WANs?

a. lower administration

b. difficult to integrate into LANs

c. 1 Gbps bandwidth

d. distances over 5 km

b. difficult to integrate into LANs

You have been asked to install a VPN remote access solution using Windows Server. What do you need to install?

a. Microsoft Mobile User Service (MMUS)

b. Windows Server Remote Access (WSRA)

c. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)

d. Dialup and Remote Access Services (DRAS)

c. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)

Which one of the following is NOT a typical SONET data rate?

a. OC-3

b. OC-48

c. OC-128

d. OC-768

c. OC-128

What would an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network be best suited for?

a. sending e-mail

b. downloading an RFC text file from the IETF web page

c. transferring large files

d. carrying voice, data, and time-sensitive information

d. carrying voice, data, and time-sensitive information

Which cloud computing category allows a company to quickly provision additional disk space?

a. hosted networking

b. hosted applications

c. hosted platforms

d. hosted infrastructure

d. hosted infrastructure

Which cloud computing category refers to the use of software hosted on a service provider's network, and is usually subscription based?

a. Software as a service

b. Networking as a service

c. Platform as a service

d. Infrastructure as a service

a. Software as a service

Which statement about Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is true?

a. MPLS is popular because of its ease of use and inexpensive cost.

b. MPLS works with any Network layer protocol.

c. MPLS is dependent on the underlying Data Link layer technology.

d. MPLS will run over ATM, frame relay, and SONET, but not Ethernet.

b. MPLS works with any Network layer protocol.

What is the signaling method used to allocate time slots for each channel in a T-carrier line called?

a. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

b. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)

c. Time Slotted Modulation (TSM)

d. Fractional Channel Division (FCD)

a. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

The company you work for currently has ISDN service in place. Your supervisor wishes to know what sort of ISDN service is being used so that better alternatives can be considered. He tells you that the service has two B-Channels and a D-Channel. What ISDN format do you have?

a. Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

c. Basic Rate Extended (BRE)

d. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

The plain old telephone service is a good example of what kind of WAN technology?

a. packet switched

b. leased line

c. VPN over Internet

d. circuit switched

d. circuit switched

Although a frame relay connection is established in much the same way that a T1 connection is, which of the following is an important distinction between the two technologies?

a. Frame relay is point to point, whereas T1 uses virtual circuits.

b. T1 uses point to point, while frame relay makes use of virtual circuits.

c. T1 connections are established using CSU/DSUs. Frame relay connections require a VPN service on the remote node.

d. T1 data traffic must all be transmitted in clear text, while frame relay encrypts data automatically and is more secure.

b. T1 uses point to point, while frame relay makes use of virtual circuits.

Part of SONET's flexibility comes from its ability to be arranged in several different physical topologies. Which of the following is NOT a possible SONET topology?

a. point to point

b. point to multipoint

c. fault tolerant bus

d. fault tolerant ring

c. fault tolerant bus

Which of the following is NOT a typical function of a file system?

a. disk drive space organization

b. schedules processes and manages memory

c. hierarchical storage method

d. provides secure access to files

b. schedules processes and manages memory

What unit is used to divide the storage space on a disk drive?

a. bytes

b. sectors

c. bits

d. segments

b. sectors

What type of multitasking did older OSs use, which allowed a process to monopolize the CPU's time until the process had completed its own task?

a. contextual

b. cooperative

c. preemptive

d. multiplexed

b. cooperative

How does a CPU perform multitasking?

a. using time division multiplexing

b. using asynchronous bus management

c. using time slicing and context switching

d. using process-driven frequency hopping

c. using time slicing and context switching

Which of the following is a service NOT usually found on a client operating system?

a. DNS

b. file sharing

c. DHCP

d. directory service

d. directory service

What is the native file-sharing protocol in Linux?

a. SMB

b. NFS

c. NSF

d. SMP

b. NFS

Which protocol does Windows use by default for file sharing?

a. SMTP

b. SMB

c. FTP

d. SNMP

b. SMB

You have been asked to create a file that will contain a series of Windows command-prompt commands that automate the creation of a VPN client that connects to your company VPN server. What type of file should you create?

a. computer program

b. executable file

c. batch file

d. macro file

c. batch file

What directory service protocol is used by Active Directory and also supported by Linux?

a. NFS

b. NIS

c. LDAP

d. ICMP

c. LDAP

What storage solution involves a third-party company that provides off-site hosting of data?

a. network-attached storage

b. cloud-based storage

c. network accessed appliance

d. storage area network

b. cloud-based storage

What is a partial copy of a VM that is used to restore it to a previous state?

a. snapshot

b. clone

c. hypervisor

d. host computer

a. snapshot

Which of the following virtualization products uses a type 2 hypervisor?

a. Citrix XenServer

b. VMware vSphere

c. Microsoft Hyper-V

d. VMware Workstation

d. VMware Workstation

You are testing out a new DHCP server and want to make sure that it does not interfere with your current network. What option would you use to configure your network adapter using VMware Workstation?

a. external

b. bridged

c. host-only

d. switched

c. host-only

Which feature of bare-metal virtualization products allows virtual resources to be allocated on demand to meet application requirements?

a. server consolidation

b. snapshots

c. live migration

d. dynamic provisioning

d. dynamic provisioning

In Windows, what do rights define?

a. when the user can sign in to the system

b. the types of actions a user can perform

c. which files the user has access to

d. how often the user must change the password

b. the types of actions a user can perform

You are creating a new group for the Sales department. All of the users that will be in this group will need to have access to the same resources. What scope would you use for this group?

a. domain local

b. universal

c. global

d. local

c. global

In Linux, what is the command for viewing a file's contents on the screen?

a. dir

b. cat

c. etc

d. ls

b. cat

A user logs on to her account and is able to makes changes to her desktop, like adding a background and screen saver. However, when she logs off and logs back on, the desktop reverts to its original configuration. What type of user profile does this user have?

a. roaming

b. local

c. default

d. mandatory

d. mandatory

The partition that contains the Windows OS files is known as the what type of partition?

a. extended

b. dynamic

c. boot

d. primary

c. boot

What type of disk is required if you want to access additional features such as disk spanning?

a. system

b. active

c. basic

d. dynamic

d. dynamic

You have just installed a new disk and formatted it. You don't want to assign it a drive letter and you want to access it from your existing C: drive. What feature should you use?

a. shadow copies

b. disk quotas

c. file compression

d. volume mount points

d. volume mount points

You have been asked to store a file with personal information on it. You need to be sure that only your user account can access the file, even if other user account have been granted permissions or if the disk is stolen. What standard NTFS feature can you use?

a. EFS

b. NFS

c. SMB

d. FTP

a. EFS

Which of the following is NOT a Linux native file system?

a. Ext3

b. Ext4

c. ReiserFS

d. ReFS

d. ReFS

Where are the waiting print jobs stored while they are waiting to be sent to the print device?

a. print server

b. printer pool

c. printer

d. print queue

d. print queue

What tool would you use to view error messages that are generated by system services or applications?

a. Resource Manager

b. Event Viewer

c. Task Manager

d. Performance Monitor

b. Event Viewer

Which disk arrangement is fault tolerant and uses half of your disk space for fault tolerance?

a. disk striping

b. disk mirroring

c. disk striping with parity

d. disk parity

b. disk mirroring

Which disk configuration does not provide fault tolerance?

a. disk striping

b. RAID 1

c. disk mirroring

d. RAID 5

a. disk striping

How many disks are needed to implement a RAID 1 + 0?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

c. 4

Employees in the Sales department need to be able to access the sales share on the file server. They will need to have the ability to create files, read them, and make corrections or additions. Which of the following share permissions should the group be given?

a. change

b. read

c. modify

d. write

a. change

In which special identity group does a user become a member when the user logs onto a computer locally?

a. Print Operators

b. Network

c. Interactive

d. System

e. Self

c. Interactive

Which technology is most likely to be associated with IoT?

a. desktop computer

b. smart watch

c. laptop computer

d. supercomputer

b. smart watch

Which application would be considered a product of IoT?

a. topographic maps

b. DVD video player

c. AM radio broadcast

d. real-time traffic information

d. real-time traffic information

Which industry sector uses IoT technologies to deploy smart grids?

a. transportation

b. manufacturing

c. energy

d. emergency services

c. energy

Which of the following is a benefit of data-driven manufacturing?

a. efficiency from the use of smart meters

b. reduction of waste in material goods

c. efficient traffic management

d. mobile diagnostics for early responders

b. reduction of waste in material goods

Which of the following would NOT typically be considered a goal of most IoT technologies?

a. collect data

b. react to data

c. store data

d. communicate data

c. store data

Which type of sensor is most likely to be used in seismology and mining to detect ground movement?

a. geophone

b. proximity sensor

c. photoresistor

d. humidity sensor

a. geophone

Which type of sensor can be used to cause an event to occur when the sun comes up?

a. gyroscope

b. LDR

c. PIR

d. capacitive

b. LDR

If you want to build a smart-glove that responds based on the direction and speed a user moves their hand, what sensor should you use?

a. accelerometer

b. photodiode

c. microwave radar

d. biometric

a. accelerometer

What type of sensor is used to allow a smart phone screen respond to touch?

a. GPS

b. temperature

c. capacitive

d. passive infrared

c. capacitive

When processing of collected data occurs where the sensors are located, what type of processing is this?

a. front-end processing

b. cloud processing

c. back-end processing

d. edge processing

d. edge processing

In which type of system are you most likely to find a microcontroller?

a. embedded

b. database

c. back-end

d. mainframe

a. embedded

What type of network is used in the utility industry to wirelessly collect data from utility meters and can reach distances of dozens of kilometers?

a. PAN

b. LAN

c. NAN

d. SAN

c. NAN

Which type of network might be used to connect utility network nodes together?

a. Field Area Network

b. Neighborhood Area Network

c. Wide Area Network

d. Personal Area Network

a. Field Area Network

Which features does Bluetooth 5.1 add to existing Bluetooth technology?

a. low energy

b. burst transfer

c. mesh networking

d. Bluetooth Smart

c. mesh networking

Which of the following is considered a LPWA network technology?

a. LoRaWAN

b. Z-Wave

c. Zigbee

d. Bluetooth

a. LoRaWAN