MIcroBio Exam IV Practice Questions

What is NOT a characteristic of rotavirus?

X A: segmented double-stranded RNA genome

X B: fecal-oral mode of transmission

X C: produces and exotoxin that binds collagen

X D: Group A rotavirus is the most common type in the United States

X E: a vaccine against rotavirus infection is available

X C: produces and exotoxin that binds collagen

What HIV protein binds to CD4 on host cell surfaces?

X A: gp120

X B: gp41

X C: integrase

X D: protease

X E: reverse transcriptase

X A: gp120

What is the main reason that HIV positive individuals are able to transmit the virus many years after their initial

infection?

X A: viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by host cell RNA polymerase II

X B: viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by viral RNA polymerase

X C: infectious viral particles can survive in the bloodstream for many years

X D: viral RNA remains stored in the cytoplasm of host T-cells for many years and is periodically used to create infectious virions

X E: viral DNA integrated in the host genome is reverse transcribed by HIV reverse transcriptase into viral RNA

X A: viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by host cell RNA polymerase II

In a study that I described in class, blood samples were taken monthly over a 39 month period from patients

infected with HIV to follow the virus replicating in the patients' systems and the patients' antibody response. The

patients became infected with HIV in month 0. What is a valid conclusion from the study?

X A: month 12 plasma does not have significant levels of anti-HIV antibodies

X B: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 12 virus but not month 0 virus

X C: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react as poorly to month 6 virus as to month 12 virus

X D: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 0 virus but not month 12 virus

X E: month 12 plasma indicates that the patient's immune system is collapsing

X D: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 0 virus but not month 12 virus

Which of the following is NOT true about HIV?

X A: viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by host cell RNA polymerase II

X B: viral DNA is reverse transcribed from viral RNA

X C: viral particles in the bloodstream in the first year following infection do not elicit a host immune response

X D: reverse transcription of viral RNA occurs shortly after entry of viral nucleocapsids into the infected cell

X E: HIV protease acts after the release of new virus particles from cells

X C: viral particles in the bloodstream in the first year following infection do not elicit a host immune response

Which of the following charaterizes adenovirus replication?

X A: single-strand DNA genome copied by viral preterminal protein

X B: only one strand of double-strand DNA genome copied at each replication fork

X C: only one strand of double-strand RNA genome copied at each replication fork

X D: single-strand RNA genome with replication primed by viral pre-terminal protein

X E: double-strand DNA genome, with leading and lagging strand replication at each replication fork

X B: only one strand of double-strand DNA genome copied at each replication fork

What viral protein sequesters Rb and prevents it from controlling E2f transcription factor?

X A: HIV protease

X B: Adenovirus E1a protein

X C: Human Papilloma Virus E6 protein

X D: Influenza Virus neuraminidase

X E: Measles Virus F protein

X B: Adenovirus E1a protein

What is the cause of respiratory papillomatosis?

X A: warts of the oropharynx caused by human papillomavirus infection

X B: respiratory obstruction caused by influenza virus infection

X C: warts in the oropharynx caused by morbillivirus infection

X D: lung lesions in SARS pneumonia

X A: warts of the oropharynx caused by human papillomavirus infection

The Human Papilloma Virus E7 protein plays a role most similar to the role of what other viral protein?

X A: Respiratory Syncytial Virus G protein

X B: Human Papilloma Virus E6 protein

X C: HIV integrase

X D: Adenovirus E1b protein

X E: Adenovirus E1a protein

X E: Adenovirus E1a protein

What is not a defining property of herpesviridae famly members?

X A: able to exist in a latent or suppressed state in their natural hosts

X B: viral production results in destruction of infected cell

X C: synthesis of viral DNAs and capsid assembly occur in the nucleus

X D: encode a large array of enzymes involved in DNA synthesis

X E: bring an RNA dependent RNA polymerase into a newly infected cell

X E: bring an RNA dependent RNA polymerase into a newly infected cell

Which hepatitis virus causes a high incidence of persistent infections (70% of infections becoming persistent in

otherwise healthy adults)?

X A: HDV

X B: HAV

X C: HBV

X D: HEV

X E: HCV

X E: HCV

Which of the following is diagnostic for infection with cytomegalovirus?

X A: Negri bodies

X B: Kaposi's sarcoma

X C: Cowdry type A inclusion bodies

X D: Dane particles

X E: Owl eye inclusions

X E: Owl eye inclusions

Which virus is spread by respiratory transmission?

X A: poliovirus

X B: varicella-zoster virus

X C: HIV

X D: rotavirus

X E: hepatitis B virus

X B: varicella-zoster virus

Which viruses are present in the greatest proportion of advanced periodontal lesions?

X A: varicella zoster virus and herpes simplex viruses

X B: cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus

X C: HHV-7 and HHV-8

X D: HSV-1 and HSV-2

X E: mumps virus and HHV-3

X B: cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus

Infection with which herpesvirus is commonly diagnosed by detection of heterophile antibody?

X A: EBV

X B: herpes simplex virus type 2

X C: CMV

X D: Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus

X E: varicella zoster virus

X A: EBV

What virus does not invade neurons?

X A: hepatitis B virus

X B: measles virus

X C: herpes simplex virus

X D: varicella-zoster virus

X E: rabies virus

X A: hepatitis B virus

A individual who has a later stage chronic infection with HBV would display which of the follow serological

properties?

X A: presence of HBs antigens combined with presence of anti-HBc and anti-HBe antibodies

X B: presence of anti-HBs antibodies combined with lack of detectable HBs and HBe antigens

X C: presence of HBs and HBe antigens along with anti-HBe antibodies

X D: presence of HBs and HBe antigens along with anti-HBs antibodies

X E: absence of all HB antigens and absence of antibodies against HBs, HBc, and HBe

X A: presence of HBs antigens combined with presence of anti-HBc and anti-HBe antibodies

Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?

X A: HIV

X B: hepatitis A virus

X C: influenza virus

X D: measles virus

X E: herpes simplex virus type I

X B: hepatitis A virus

What is a property of the anti-cytomegalovirus drug ganciclovir?

X A: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is used directly by viral DNA polymerase

X B: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is more readily used by cellular thymidine kinase

X C: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is not used by viral thymidine kinase

X D: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is more readily inhibits cellular protein synthesis

X E: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is already in a triphosphate form

X B: is more toxic than acyclovir because it is more readily used by cellular thymidine kinase

Enfuvirtide is an HIV fusion inhibitor that

X A: binds to gp120

X B: binds to gp41

X C: binds to CD4

X D: binds to CCR5

X E: binds to CXCR4

X B: binds to gp41

How does paxlovid, a drug for treating COVID-19, act as an antiviral?

X A: is an inhibitor of viral assembly

X B: is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

X C: is an inhibitor of viral thymidine kinase

X D: is an inhibitor of viral protease

X E: is a non-nucleoside inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase

X D: is an inhibitor of viral protease

Passive immunization is NOT a current therapy in which of the following disease situations?

X A: rabies virus infection

X B: botulism poisoning

X C: tuberculosis

X D: Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection

X E: varicella zoster virus infection

X C: tuberculosis

What strategy has been used to create a successful vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)?

X A: creating a vaccine from purified Hib capsular polysaccharride as the only antigen

X B: creating a vaccine from Hib capsular polysaccharride linked to a diphtheria toxoid molecule as the antigens

X C: creating a vaccine from Hib capsular polysaccharride linked to a cholera toxoid molecule as the antigens

X D: creating a vaccine from Hib DNA polymerase as the only antigen

X E: creating a vaccine from Hib hemagglutinin as the only antigen

X B: creating a vaccine from Hib capsular polysaccharride linked to a diphtheria toxoid molecule as the antigens

For which disease agent is a T-cell response an essential "correlate of protection?"

X A: Clostridium tetani

X B: rotavirus

X C: measles virus

X D: poliovirus

X E: hepatitis A virus

X C: measles virus

An altered form of the PrP protein (PrPSc) is the basis for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. What is a property

of PrPSc?

X A: does not interact with PrP form

X B: resistant to degradation

X C: does not form amyloid fibrils

X D: is not transmissable

X E: inactivated by ionizing radiation

X B: resistant to degradation

Which of the following is true about variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (variant CJD)?

X A: the median duration of the illness in 13-14 months

X B: variant CJD first exhibits gastrointestinal symptoms

X C: the median age at death of variant CJD victims is in their late 60s

X D: PRPsc does not ususally accumulate in brain tissue

X E: the agent of variant CJD is a zoonotically acquired bacterium

X A: the median duration of the illness in 13-14 months

Which fungus only grows in a yeast form (lacks a mold form)?

X A: Histoplasma capsulatum

X B: Candida albicans

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

X D: Blastomyces dermatitidis

X E: Coccidioides immitis

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

How do anti-fungal allylamine compounds work?

X A: inhibit squalene epoxidase activity

X B: inhibit cytochrome P450-dependent 14-alpha-lanosterol demethylation

X C: inhibit synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan

X D: bind sterols in fungal membranes and creating channels

X E: block nucleic acid synthesis

X A: inhibit squalene epoxidase activity

Which anti-fungal binds ergosterol in fungal membranes and alters membrane permeability?

X A: 5-flucytosine

X B: caspofungin

X C: ketonazole

X D: terbinafine

X E: amphotericin B

X E: amphotericin B

Which fungal staining method involves fluorescent detection of chitin?

X A: periodic acid-Schiff

X B: potassium hydroxide

X C: Grocott-Gomori methamine silver

X D: Gridley's method

X E: calcofluor white

X E: calcofluor white

What is the human body's primary mechanism for fighting fungi?

X A: neutrophil phagocytosis and T cell-mediated immunity

X B: defensins and mucins

X C: killing by the complement membrane attack complex

X D: lysozyme-mediated destruction of fungal cell walls

X E: neutralizing antibodies

X A: neutrophil phagocytosis and T cell-mediated immunity

Which form of candidiasis is associated with high incidences of oral cancer?

X A: acute pseudomembranous

X B: plaquelike/nodular

X C: chronic erythematous

X D: angular chelitis

X E: acute erythematous

X B: plaquelike/nodular

Which form of oral candidiasis involves superficial fungal growth with easily removeable plaques of fungi?

X A: acute pseudomembranous

X B: plaquelike/nodular

X C: chronic erythematous

X D: angular chelitis

X E: acute erythematous

X A: acute pseudomembranous

What agent of "desert rheumatism" can cause chronic meningitis that is fatal without lifelong treatment?

X A: Pneumocystis jiroveci

X B: Candida albicans

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

X D: Histoplasma capsulatum

X E: Coccidioides immitis

X E: Coccidioides immitis

Which is a true statement about babesia, a malaria-like illness that is endemic to the United States?

X A: it is sexually transmitted

X B: it has hepatocellular and erythrocytic stages

X C: it is caused by Plasmodium falciparium

X D: it is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitos

X E: it is transmitted by Ixodes ticks

X E: it is transmitted by Ixodes ticks

What agent causes periodic attacks of chills and fever that coincide with massive lysis of red blood cells?

X A: HIV

X B: Plasmodium falciparum

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

X D: Toxoplasma gondii

X E: hepatitis B virus

X B: Plasmodium falciparum

What pathogen does not cause a diarrheal disease?

X A: Cryptosporidium parvum

X B: Entamoeba histolytica

X C: Toxoplasma gondii

X D: Giardia lamblia

X E: Norovirus

X C: Toxoplasma gondii

What protozoan is the most common cause of epidemic waterborne diarrheal disease?

X A: Cryptosporidium parvum

X B: Entamoeba histolytica

X C: Trichomonas vaginalis

X D: Toxoplasma gondii

X E: Giardia lamblia

X E: Giardia lamblia

Which type of diagnostic growth medium tests bacteria for particular metabolic activities?

X A: differential medium

X B: enrichment medium

X C: characteristic medium

X D: selective medium

X E: permissive medium

X C: characteristic medium

The "sensitivity" of a diagnostic test measures the percentage of

X A: true negative test results among the total of true negatives plus false positives

X B: true positive test results among the total of true positives plus false positives

X C: true positive test results among the total of true positives plus false negatives

X D: true negative test results among the total of true negatives plus false negatives

X E: true positive test results among the total of true positives plus false negatives plus false positives

X C: true positive test results among the total of true positives plus false negatives

What is true about a prozone reaction in a latex agglutination test for detecting microbial antigens?

X A: it occurs when patient antibodies to the pathogen interfere with microbial antigens reacting with the latex beads

X B: it occurs when microbial antigens in a sample are very dilute

X C: it is an example of a false positive test result

X D: it is an example of a false negative test result

X E: it occurs when microbial antigens precipitate out of solution and become undetectable

X D: it is an example of a false negative test result

What best describes an enzymeimmunoassay test for a microbial antigen (versus an ELISA sandwich assay)?

X A: there are antibodies from the patient's serum above a layer of specific antigen bound to the solid support

X B: antigen from the patient's serum bound to a layer of antibody on the solid support is competed away from binding by a

radiolabeled lab-supplied antigen

X C: a radiolabeled lab-supplied antigen bound to a layer of antibody on the solid support is competed away from binding by antigen

in the patient's serum

X D: the antigen being detected in the patient's serum is bound to the solid support, then a labeled antibody to the antigen is added

during the test

X E: there is a layer of antibody from the patient's serum on top of a layer of antibody on the solid support

X C: a radiolabeled lab-supplied antigen bound to a layer of antibody on the solid support is competed away from binding by antigen

What is an example of a holoendemic disease?

X A: malaria

X B: Dengue fever

X C: histoplasmosis

X D: influenza

X E: gonorrhea

X A: malaria

In disease transmission, particles of 4 micrometers or less in diameter that can remain airborne for hours are

called what?

X A: droplet nuclei

X B: fomites

X C: dust particles

X D: spray droplets

X E: vehicles

X A: droplet nuclei

What is true about biologic transmission with respect to vector-borne pathogens?

X A: this term is reserved for vectors that carry pathogens from an environmental water source

X B: the pathogen is carried externally on the body of the vector (passively)

X C: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector but does not undergo changes during this time

X D: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector and undergoes changes during this time

X E: this term is reserved for vectors that carry pathogens to multiple new hosts after a single encounter with the environmental

source of the pathogen

X D: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector and undergoes changes during this time

When considering a propagated epidemic of an infectious disease, what does the threshold density represent?

X A: the prevalence rate of the disease in the population

X B: the number of healthy carriers in the population

X C: the morbidity rate of the disease in the population

X D: the maximum number of cases of the disease in the population

X E: the minimum number of susceptible individuals necessary to continue propagating the disease

X E: the minimum number of susceptible individuals necessary to continue propagating the disease

What is a an example of a class of compounds that are highly reactive with nucleic acids and protein, are

sporicidal, and can be used as liquid chemical sterilants?

X A: Isopropanol

X B: Lysol

X C: Benzalkonium chloride

X D: Chlorine

X E: Formaldehyde

X E: Formaldehyde

What is the Spaulding Classification category of surgical forceps?

X A: critical

X B: semi-critical

X C: non-critical

X D: environmental surface

X E: moderate risk

X A: critical

Treating all patients are as though they are a source of infectious pathogens

X A: is called "sanitization"

X B: is only practiced during peak cold and flu season

X C: is disrespectful to patients and not recommended

X D: is called "universal precautions"

X E: is called "harborage control"

X D: is called "universal precautions"

What is the role of the HIV gp120 protein?

X A: binding to the host cell CD4 receptor only

X B: binding to the host cell CXCR4 coreceptor only

X C: binding to the host cell CD4 receptor and CXCR4 coreceptor only

X D: binding to the host cell CD4 receptor and either the CCR5 OR CXCR4 coreceptor, depending on the cell type

X E: binding to the host cell CCR5 coreceptor only

X D: binding to the host cell CD4 receptor and either the CCR5 OR CXCR4 coreceptor, depending on the cell type

In a study that I described in class, blood samples were taken monthly over a 39 month period from patients

infected with HIV to follow the virus replicating in the patients' systems and the patients' antibody response. The

patients became infected with HIV in month 0. What is a valid conclusion from the study?

X A: month 12 plasma does not have significant levels of anti-HIV antibodies

X B: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react poorly to month 12 virus

X C: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react poorly to month 0 virus

X D: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 12 and month 0 virus

X E: month 12 plasma indicates that the patient's immune system is collapsing

X B: month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react poorly to month 12 virus

Which viral disease agent produces a watery diarrhea due to an enterotoxin that binds integrins, resulting in

signaling that causes secretion of chloride and water in the gut? __1__

rotavirus

What HIV protein actively causes fusion of viral and cellular membranes during viral entry? __1__

gp41

What statement best describes HIV viral titers during the course of an infection for patients that do not receive

anti-retroviral treatments?

X A: viral titers are high when patients exhibit the full range of symptoms of immune deficiency

X B: viral titers are high when patients' T-cell counts are above 200 CD4-positive T-cells per mm3

X C: viral titers are high when patients are in the first 12 months of an infection and later when they exhibit the full range of

symptoms of immune deficiency

X D: viral titers are high when patients are in the first 12 months of an infection

X C: viral titers are high when patients are in the first 12 months of an infection and later when they exhibit the full range of

Which adenovirus serotypes cause acute respiratory disease and are the target of vaccination?

X A: serotypes 11 and 15

X B: serotypes 16 and 18

X C: serotypes 4 and 7

X D: serotypes 35 and 41

X E: no adenovirus serotypes are targets of vaccination

X C: serotypes 4 and 7

How does the HPV E7 protein play a role in leading to cancer?

X A: binds p53, promoting its ubiquitin-mediated destruction

X B: binds Rb protein compled and prevents Rb from controlling the E2f transcription factor

X C: increases cell surface concentration of the EGF receptor

X D: stabilizes p53 and increases p21 activation in response to DNA damage

X E: binds E2f and prevents it from going into the nucleus

X B: binds Rb protein compled and prevents Rb from controlling the E2f transcription factor

Which hepatitis virus(es) mainly infect via a fecal-oral mode of transmission?

X A: HDV only

X B: HAV and HEV

X C: HAV and HBV

X D: HEV only

X E: HCV only

X B: HAV and HEV

Which of the following is characterisitc of infection with hepatitis B virus?

X A: Negri bodies

X B: Kaposi's sarcoma

X C: Cowdry type A inclusion bodies

X D: Dane particles

X E: oral granulomas

X D: Dane particles

A individual who has been vaccinated against HBV would display which of the follow serological properties?

X A: presence of HBs antigens combined with presence of antibodies against HBs, HBc, and HBe

X B: presence of anti-HBs antibodies combined with absence of all HB antigens

X C: presence of HBs and HBe antigens along with anti-HBe antibodies

X D: presence of HBs and HBe antigens along with anti-HBs antibodies

X E: absence of all HB antigens and absence of antibodies against HBs, HBc, and HBe

X B: presence of anti-HBs antibodies combined with absence of all HB antigens

What virus does not invade neurons? (2 answers)

X A: Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus

X B: cytomegalovirus

X C: herpes simplex virus

X D: varicella-zoster virus

X E: rabies virus

X A: Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus

X B: cytomegalovirus

Which Human Herpes Viruses fails to establish a true latency, but down-regulates to a low

level of viral production when not causing active disease?

X A: HSV-1

X B: EBV

X C: VZV

X D: CMV

X E: Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus

X D: CMV

Infection by which Human Herpes Viruses causes the following oral manifestations: painful sore throat at onset

of infection, rash at the junction of hard and soft palates, and white pseudomembrane on the tonsils?

X A: HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV only

X B: EBV only

X C: HSV-1 and HSV-2 only

X D: Cytomegalovirus only

X E: Kaposi's sarcoma-associated virus only

X B: EBV only

Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?

X A: reverse transcriptase inhibitors

X B: viral RNA polymerase inhibitors

X C: integrase inhibitors

X D: viral protease inhibitors

X E: inhibitors of viral entry into cells (fusion)

X A: reverse transcriptase inhibitors

The anti-herpes simplex virus drug acyclovir

X A: is an inhibitor of viral assembly

X B: is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral RNA translation

X C: is phosphorylated by the viral thymidine kinase enzyme

X D: is an inhibitor of viral protease

X E: is an inhibitor of viral entry into cells

X C: is phosphorylated by the viral thymidine kinase enzyme

The drug amantidine blocks infection by influenza A virus by

X A: affecting the function of the viral M2 protein

X B: affecting the function of the viral hemagglutinin protein

X C: affecting the function of the viral neuraminidase protein

X D: affecting the function of the viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

X E: affecting the function of the viral mRNA capping mechanism

X A: affecting the function of the viral M2 protein

For which disease agent is the production of secretory antibodies (IgA) part of the "correlates of protection?"

X A: Clostridium tetani

X B: rotavirus

X C: measles virus

X D: Bordetella pertussis

X E: varicella-zoster virus

X B: rotavirus

Which of the following is not a use of passive immunization?

X A: to prevent disease after a known exposure

X B: to ameliorate the symptoms of an ongoing disease

X C: to protect immunodeficient individuals

X D: to create long-lived immunity

X E: to block the action of bacterial toxins

X D: to create long-lived immunity

An adjuvant is used to

X A: boost the immunogenicity of a live, attenuated virus vaccine

X B: boost the immunogenicity of donor immunoglobulins

X C: boost the immunogenicity of a killed (inactivated) virus vaccine

X D: boost the effectiveness of antiviral drugs

X E: boost the immunogenicity of the Calmette-Guerin bacillus vaccine

X C: boost the immunogenicity of a killed (inactivated) virus vaccine

An altered form of the PrP protein (PrPSc) is the basis for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. What is the function of the

normal PrP protein (PrPC) in neurons and glial cells?

X A: a regulator of mRNA translation

X B: a regulator of ion channels and neurotransmitter receptors

X C: a cell surface receptor for a virus

X D: a pro-inflammatory cytokine

X E: a cytoskeletal protein in microvilli

X B: a regulator of ion channels and neurotransmitter receptors

Which of the following is diagnostic for infection with herpes simplex virus type 1?

X A: Negri bodies

X B: Kaposi's sarcoma

X C: Cowdry type A inclusion bodies

X D: Dane particles

X E: oral granulomas

X C: Cowdry type A inclusion bodies

What disease is caused by the conversion of a normal human protein to a form that aggregates as amyloid fibrils?

X A: Chagas disease

X B: Trichomoniasis

X C: Fatal familial insomnia

X D: Toxoplasmosis

X E: Pneumocystosis

X C: Fatal familial insomnia

Which disease agent causes superficial infections know as piedras?

X A: Cryptococcus neoformans

X B: Trichosporon beigelii

X C: Malassezia furfur

X D: Histoplasma capsulatum

X E: Blastomyces dermatitidis

X B: Trichosporon beigelii

Which fungus is neurotropic and produces melanin in its cell wall?

X A: Histoplasma capsulatum

X B: Candida albicans

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

X D: Blastomyces dermatitidis

X E: Coccidioides immitis

X C: Cryptococcus neoformans

An anti-fungal agent that inhibits synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan is limited to use against fungi of which

genus/genera?

X A: Histoplasma and Coccidioides

X B: Rhizopus and Mucor

X C: Malassezia and Trichosporon

X D: Pneumocystis

X E: Aspergillus and Candida

X E: Aspergillus and Candida

Which characterisitic is not associated with fungi?

X A: cell walls contain N-acetyl-muramic acid polymers

X B: cell type is eukaryotic

X C: cell walls contain N-acetyl-glucosamine polymers

X D: ability to form spores

X E: does not contain chlorophyll

X A: cell walls contain N-acetyl-muramic acid polymers

Which of the following is the most effective of the body's defenses for fighting fungi?

X A: neutrophil phagocytosis

X B: natural killer cells

X C: killing by the complement membrane attack complex

X D: secretory IgA production

X E: B cell IgG production

X A: neutrophil phagocytosis

For fungi, to what does the term dimorphism refer?

X A: capability to form sexual spores or conidia

X B: capability to grow as a yeast or mold

X C: capability to be a pathogen or grow in the environment

X D: capability to infect humans and animals

X E: capability to ferment or undergo aerobic metabolism

X B: capability to grow as a yeast or mold

Which of the following is associated with Coccidioides immitis?

X A: pityriasis versicolor

X B: tinea pedis

X C: rhinocerebral zygomycosis

X D: angular chelitis

X E: chronic meningitis

X E: chronic meningitis

Infection by which organism is associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

X A: Sporothrix schenkii

X B: Histoplasma capsulatum

X C: Candida albicans

X D: Zygomyces species

X E: Toxoplasma gondii

X B: Histoplasma capsulatum

How does the anti-fungal ketoconazole work?

X A: inhibiting squalene epoxidase activity

X B: inhibiting cytochrome P450-dependent 14-alpha-lanosterol demethylation

X C: inhibiting synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan

X D: binding sterols in fungal membranes and creating channels

X E: blocking nucleic acid synthesis

X B: inhibiting cytochrome P450-dependent 14-alpha-lanosterol demethylation

What protozoan is chlorine-resistant, making it easy to transmit in public swimming pools?

X A: Cryptosporidium parvum

X B: Plasmodium spp.

X C: Trypanosoma cruzi

X D: Toxoplasma gondii

X E: Entamoeba histolytica

X A: Cryptosporidium parvum

What is a property associated with Plasmodium falciparum?

X A: transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquitos

X B: survives in macrophages

X C: causes lung granulomas

X D: invades and lyses red blood cells

X E: humans are the definitive host

X D: invades and lyses red blood cells

What protozoal disease agent is transmitted in the feces of infected domestic cats?

X A: Cryptosporidium parvum

X B: Plasmodium falciparum

X C: Trypanosoma cruzi

X D: Toxoplasma gondii

X E: Entamoeba histolytica

X D: Toxoplasma gondii

The anaerobic metabolism of some protozoal pathogens makes them susceptible to which drug?

X A: quinine

X B: tetracycline

X C: caspofungin

X D: itraconazole

X E: metronidazole

X E: metronidazole

Which genus contains the most commonly sexually transmitted protozoan disease agent?

X A: Entamoeba

X B: Trypanosoma

X C: Cryptosporidium

X D: Trichomonas

X E: Babesia

X D: Trichomonas

What is the "specificity" of a diagnostic test for a pathogen that gives a true negative test result 499 out of 500

times (i.e. when the pathogen is actually absent), with a false positive result occuring 1 out of 500 times?

X A: 99.8%

X B: 99.1%

X C: 96.4%

X D: 20.8%

X E: 0.2%

X A: 99.8%

Eosin Methylene Blue agar (EMB) is an example of which type of culture medium used for diagnosis of a bacterial

infection?

X A: differential medium

X B: enrichment medium

X C: characteristic medium

X D: selective medium

X E: permissive medium

X A: differential medium

What is true about a direct ELISA assay detecting specific antibodies in patient serum?

X A: there are antibodies from the patient's serum above a layer of specific antigen bound to the solid support

X B: there is a layer of antigen from the patient's serum on top of a layer of antibody on the solid support

X C: the detecting antibody is "sandwiched" between antigen bound to the solid support and antigen in the patient's serum

X D: the antigen being detected in the patient's serum is "sandwiched" between a specific antibody bound to the solid support and

another antibody to the antigen that is added during the test.

X E: there is a layer of antibody from the patient's serum on top of a layer of antibody on the solid support

X A: there are antibodies from the patient's serum above a layer of specific antigen bound to the solid support

What is the basis for a postive test result in a latex agglutination test for a pathogen?

X A: patient antibodies to a pathogen cause agglutination of latex beads

X B: lack of pathogen antigens in a sample cause agglutination of latex beads

X C: presence of pathogen antigens in a sample cause agglutination of latex beads

X D: pathogen antigens in a sample are present at very high concentrations and block agglutination of latex beads

X E: pathogen antigens in a sample precipitate and do not bind the latex beads

X C: presence of pathogen antigens in a sample cause agglutination of latex beads

What is the prevalence rate for a disease?

X A: number of survivors from a disease per total number of individuals in a population (per year)

X B: number of deaths from a disease per number of cases of the disease

X C: number of new cases in a specific time period per unit of population

X D: number of deaths from a disease per total number of individuals in a population (per year)

X E: total number of individuals infected at any one time per unit of population

X E: total number of individuals infected at any one time per unit of population

What is true about harborage transmission with respect to vector-borne pathogens?

X A: this term is reserved for vectors that carry pathogens from an environmental water source

X B: the pathogen is carried externally on the body of the vector (passively)

X C: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector but does not undergo changes during this time

X D: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector and undergoes a key life cycle step during this time

X E: this term is reserved for vectors that carry pathogens to multiple new hosts after a single encounter with the environmental

source of the pathogen

X C: the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector but does not undergo changes during this time

What does the term R0 mean with respect to the epidemiology of an infectious disease?

X A: the number of infected individuals diagnosed with the disease in the first month of an epidemic

X B: the number of secondary cases that one case of the disease would produce in a completely susceptible population

X C: the number of new cases of the disease in a specific time period per unit of population

X D: the number of chronic carriers of the disease per unit of population

X E: the probability of contracting the disease from disease vehicles (fomites, food, water)

X B: the number of secondary cases that one case of the disease would produce in a completely susceptible population

In airborne disease transmission, what is a property of droplet nuclei?

X A: particles of 4 micrometers or less in diameter

X B: spray droplets that must land on formites before contact by a potential host

X C: any particle that travels more than 100 meters

X D: spray droplets >5 micrometers

X E: any particle that travels 1 meter or less

X A: particles of 4 micrometers or less in diameter

What is true about a propagated epidemic?

X A: the number of cases rises until all the susceptible individuals in the population are infected

X B: herd immunity has no effect on the propagation of the disease

X C: the pattern of disease spread is the same as for a common-source epidemic

X D: the number of cases begins to fall once the number of susceptible individuals falls below the threshold density

X E: at the height of a propagated epidemic no more than 1% of a population is infected and usually it is far lower than 1%

X D: the number of cases begins to fall once the number of susceptible individuals falls below the threshold density

What is the decimal reduction time in the heat-killing of microorganisms?

X A: shortest time needed to kill all microbes in a sample at a specific temperature

X B: time required to kill 90% of microbes in a sample at a specific temperature

X C: time required to kill 50% of microbes in a sample at a specific temperature

X D: the Z value

X E: the thermal death time

X B: time required to kill 90% of microbes in a sample at a specific temperature

What is the Spaulding Classification category of a blood pressure cuff?

X A: critical

X B: semi-critical

X C: non-critical

X D: environmental surface

X E: moderate risk

X C: non-critical

What compounds are cationic detergents, making them effective wetting agents and emulsifiers, that also kill

most bacteria but are safe and easy to use, even in households?

X A: Halogens

X B: Phenolics

X C: Aldehydes

X D: Quaternary ammonium compounds

X E: Heavy metals

X D: Quaternary ammonium compounds

Which viral agent of gastroenteritis has a single-stranded RNA genome and undergoes two phases of translation like

coronaviruses?

X A: hepatitis A virus

X B: enteric adenovirus

X C: norovirus

X D: poliovirus

X E: rotavirus

X C: norovirus

What is a role of the HIV gp120 protein?

X A: reverse transcription of viral RNA

X B: cutting of viral polyproteins

X C: integration of viral cDNA

X D: fusion of viral and cellular membranes during viral entry

X E: binding to CD4 on host cell surfaces

X E: binding to CD4 on host cell surfaces

HIV mutates rapidly during an infection due to errors by which enzyme?

X A: host cell RNA polymerase II

X B: viral RNA polymerase

X C: viral protease

X D: viral integrase

X E: viral reverse transcriptase

X E: viral reverse transcriptase