Exam 1 (genomic IP5)

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176 Terms

1

Genes have _______________ such as promotors and enhancers

regulatory domains

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2

DNA is (translated or transcribed) into RNA

transcribed

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3

RNA is ______, or the introns are removed

spliced

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4

(translation or transcription) occurs when RNA is made into protein by ribosomes

translation

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5

Process where DNA is used as a template to synthesize RNA

Transcription

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6

Only known molecule to function both in the storage and transmission of genetic information and catalysis

RNA

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7

Nitrogen base that pairs with adenine in RNA

Uracil (not thymine as in DNA)

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8

Replication, as opposed to transcription, uses (both strands or a single strand) as a template

both strands

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9

Which process - replication or transcription- uses a primer?

Replication

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10

Main enzyme in the process of replication

DNA polymerase

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11

Main enzyme in the process of D

RNA polymerase

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12

Final product of replication

dsDNA

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13

Final product of transcription

ssRNA

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14

T/F: proof reading occurs in both replication and transcription

True

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15

Three letter code for an amino acid

Codon

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16

Codons that are degenerate (many codons code for the same AA)

sense codons

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17

Codons that code for a stop codon (there are 3 of them)

nonsense codon

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18

Translation STARTS at the codon __________

AUG

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19

Codons are recognized by which Molecules?

tRNA

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20

The ______ links all the amino acids together

ribosome

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21

Sequence of amino acids

primary structure

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22

structure of AA that includes the alpha helix and beta-pleated sheet

Secondary structure

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23

3D shape of a polypeptide due to interactions of the R groups of the amino acids making up the chain

Tertiary structure

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24

The shape resulting from the association of two or more polypeptide subunits

Quaternary structure

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25

___________ of molecules usually occurs for signaling pathways to start

phosphorylation

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26

_____________ of DNA and histones causes nucleosomes to loosen and spread apart; increases access to DNA and makes it more likely to be expressed

acetylation

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27

_______ of DNA makes genes less likely to be expressed

methylation

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28

addition of carbohydrate groups to the membrane that allows for cell signaling

glycosylation

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29

the targeting of molecules to be destroyed

ubiquitylation

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30

Umbiquitylation and sumolation are used for __________________ targeting

degradation

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31

The repetitive DNA in our genome could come from _____ or errors in DNA replication

Viruses

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32

Repetitive DNA makes up the entire structure of a _________

centromere

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33

A short, specific and repeating sequence of nucleotides ( 2 - 5 base pair motif repeated)

microsatellite

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34

repetitive elements in our genome (tandem repeats) are _______________, meaning they are very prone to mutations

hypermutable

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35

long interspersed nuclear elements (an interspersed repeat)

LINES

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36

Short interspersed nuclear elements (an interspersed repeat)

SINES

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37

a type of retrotransposon that is derived from a virus and has long terminal repeats

LTR retrotransposons

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38

_______________ can integrate into the genome and distrupt gene coding sequences or effect gene regulation/transcription

interspersed repeats (lines, sines, LTR retrotransposons)

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39

yes or no: is the central dogma always followed?

no - reverse transcriptase

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40

T/F: mutations located in introns are never of any consequence

False (introns could be involved in splicing or gene regulating of exons)

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41

An abnormal number of chromosomes; can be trisomy, monosomy, etc

aneuploidy

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42

any change in the arrangement of, or nucleotide sequence, in DNA

mutation

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43

one nucleotide replaces another; could be synonymous (same codon produced), missense (changes AA), or nonsense (stop codon)

substitution

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44

mutation that could cause the addition of an AA or a frameshift mutation

insertion

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45

mutation that could cause the loss of an AA or a frameshift mutation

deletion

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46

regions with particularly high rates of mutation

hot spots

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47

a mutation that severely impairs function and results in death of the organism

lethal mutation

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48

mutation that has no impact on form or function

neutral mutation

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49

a neutral mutation that reaches a frequency of 1% in the population

polymorphism

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50

occurs when a gene doesn’t produce enough protein (reduced or missing)

loss of function

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51

the phenomenon in which a person only has a single functional copy of a gene, and that single functional copy does not produce a normal phenotype (50% not sufficient)

haploinsufficiency

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52

Lamellar ichthyosis (skin thickening) and skull shape (the shortening of) is the result of _____________ in a gene

loss of function

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53

occurs when a novel protein product is produced, or there is over-expression/inappropriate expression of a gene’s product is produced, or there is over-expression/inappropriate expression of a gene’s product

gain of function

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54

refers to how one allele is enough to disrupt phenotype (in gains of function)

dominant negative

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55

Preaxial polydactyly is an example of a __________; results from mutations in the regulatory element that controls expression of sonic hedgehog

gain of function

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56

also called round heart disease in turkeys; sudden death is caused by cardiac arrest & onset is within the first few weeks of life

DCM (dilated cardiomyopathy)

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57

DCM in turkeys is caused by a deletion in intron 7 that causes skipping of exon 8 in the cardiac ______ gene

Troponin T

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58

incorporation of the mutant troponin T into the myofibrils negatively affects cardiac muscle contractility in turkeys with DCM; this is an example of a _______________

dominant negative

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59

___ refers to the number of chromosomes found in gametes

N

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60

the number of chromosomes found in somatic celsl (1N, 2N, 4N)

2N (diploid )

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61

non-sex chromosomes

autosomes

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62

typically X and Y (or W and Z in birds)

sex chromsoomes

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63

the (females or males) are homogametic XX in mammales

females

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64

the females or males are homogametic ZZ in birds

males

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65

the phase of the cell cycle that includes mitosis and cytokinesis

M phase

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66

Stage of interphase in which cell grows and performs its normal functions

G1 phase

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67

the phase of the cell cycle where DNA is replicated

S phase

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68

the phase of the cell cycle that involves growth and preparation for mitosis

G2 phase

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69

part of the cell cycle that includes G1, S and G2

interphase

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70

area where the chromatids of a chromosome are attached

centromere

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71

short arm of chromosome

p arm

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72

long arm of chromosome

q arm

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73

chromosomes that are given the same number, but are of opposite parental origin

homologues

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74

type of chromosomes in which the centromere is in the middle

metacentric

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75

type of chromosomes in which centromere is slightly off center

submetacentric

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76

type of chromosome in which centromere is located at the terminal end

acrocentric

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77

a display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by increasing size and shape

karyotype

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78

abbreviation that represents bovine chromosome number 4

BTA4

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79

abbreviation that represents canine cromosome number 7

CFA7

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80

abbreviation that represents human chromosome number 8

HSA8

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81

abbreviation that represents horse chromosome number 2

ECA2

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82

abbreviation that represents cat chromosome number 1

FCA1

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83

abbreviation that represents pig chromosome 9

SSC9

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84

Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis; gives us a mixture of traits

crossing over

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85

chromosome number (n) is a gamete = 1 N

haploid

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86

chromosome number (n) is a zygote = 2N

diploid

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87

basic unit of inheritance

gene

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88

form/version of a gene

allele

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89

both alleles are the same (AA or aa)

homozygous

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90

both alleles are different (Aa)

heterozygous

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91

only 1 allele is possible (allele on X or Y chromosome in males)

hemizygous

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92

T/F: there are only 2 alleles per gene in mammals

false (you may only have 2 out of XXX, but there can be multiple forms of a gene you do not have)

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93

phenotype is seen in heterozygotes

dominant

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94

phenotype only expressed in homozygotes

recessive

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95

pattern of inheritance in which there is a blended phenotype, a mix between two alleles

incomplete dominance

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96

a condition in which both alleles for a gene are fully expressed

codominance

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97

genetic constitution or alleles present

genotype

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98

physical manifestation of a genotype + environment

phenotype

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99

individual has a gene but doesn’t express the phenotype

incomplete penetrance

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100

Refers to how individuals with the same genotype can have related phenotypes that vary in intensity

variable expressivity

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