Exam 1 (genomic IP5)

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176 Terms

1
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Genes have _______________ such as promotors and enhancers

regulatory domains

2
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DNA is (translated or transcribed) into RNA

transcribed

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RNA is ______, or the introns are removed

spliced

4
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(translation or transcription) occurs when RNA is made into protein by ribosomes

translation

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Process where DNA is used as a template to synthesize RNA

Transcription

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Only known molecule to function both in the storage and transmission of genetic information and catalysis

RNA

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Nitrogen base that pairs with adenine in RNA

Uracil (not thymine as in DNA)

8
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Replication, as opposed to transcription, uses (both strands or a single strand) as a template

both strands

9
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Which process - replication or transcription- uses a primer?

Replication

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Main enzyme in the process of replication

DNA polymerase

11
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Main enzyme in the process of D

RNA polymerase

12
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Final product of replication

dsDNA

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Final product of transcription

ssRNA

14
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T/F: proof reading occurs in both replication and transcription

True

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Three letter code for an amino acid

Codon

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Codons that are degenerate (many codons code for the same AA)

sense codons

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Codons that code for a stop codon (there are 3 of them)

nonsense codon

18
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Translation STARTS at the codon __________

AUG

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Codons are recognized by which Molecules?

tRNA

20
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The ______ links all the amino acids together

ribosome

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Sequence of amino acids

primary structure

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structure of AA that includes the alpha helix and beta-pleated sheet

Secondary structure

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3D shape of a polypeptide due to interactions of the R groups of the amino acids making up the chain

Tertiary structure

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The shape resulting from the association of two or more polypeptide subunits

Quaternary structure

25
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___________ of molecules usually occurs for signaling pathways to start

phosphorylation

26
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_____________ of DNA and histones causes nucleosomes to loosen and spread apart; increases access to DNA and makes it more likely to be expressed

acetylation

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_______ of DNA makes genes less likely to be expressed

methylation

28
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addition of carbohydrate groups to the membrane that allows for cell signaling

glycosylation

29
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the targeting of molecules to be destroyed

ubiquitylation

30
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Umbiquitylation and sumolation are used for __________________ targeting

degradation

31
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The repetitive DNA in our genome could come from _____ or errors in DNA replication

Viruses

32
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Repetitive DNA makes up the entire structure of a _________

centromere

33
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A short, specific and repeating sequence of nucleotides ( 2 - 5 base pair motif repeated)

microsatellite

34
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repetitive elements in our genome (tandem repeats) are _______________, meaning they are very prone to mutations

hypermutable

35
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long interspersed nuclear elements (an interspersed repeat)

LINES

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Short interspersed nuclear elements (an interspersed repeat)

SINES

37
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a type of retrotransposon that is derived from a virus and has long terminal repeats

LTR retrotransposons

38
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_______________ can integrate into the genome and distrupt gene coding sequences or effect gene regulation/transcription

interspersed repeats (lines, sines, LTR retrotransposons)

39
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yes or no: is the central dogma always followed?

no - reverse transcriptase

40
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T/F: mutations located in introns are never of any consequence

False (introns could be involved in splicing or gene regulating of exons)

41
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An abnormal number of chromosomes; can be trisomy, monosomy, etc

aneuploidy

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any change in the arrangement of, or nucleotide sequence, in DNA

mutation

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one nucleotide replaces another; could be synonymous (same codon produced), missense (changes AA), or nonsense (stop codon)

substitution

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mutation that could cause the addition of an AA or a frameshift mutation

insertion

45
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mutation that could cause the loss of an AA or a frameshift mutation

deletion

46
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regions with particularly high rates of mutation

hot spots

47
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a mutation that severely impairs function and results in death of the organism

lethal mutation

48
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mutation that has no impact on form or function

neutral mutation

49
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a neutral mutation that reaches a frequency of 1% in the population

polymorphism

50
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occurs when a gene doesn’t produce enough protein (reduced or missing)

loss of function

51
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the phenomenon in which a person only has a single functional copy of a gene, and that single functional copy does not produce a normal phenotype (50% not sufficient)

haploinsufficiency

52
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Lamellar ichthyosis (skin thickening) and skull shape (the shortening of) is the result of _____________ in a gene

loss of function

53
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occurs when a novel protein product is produced, or there is over-expression/inappropriate expression of a gene’s product is produced, or there is over-expression/inappropriate expression of a gene’s product

gain of function

54
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refers to how one allele is enough to disrupt phenotype (in gains of function)

dominant negative

55
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Preaxial polydactyly is an example of a __________; results from mutations in the regulatory element that controls expression of sonic hedgehog

gain of function

56
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also called round heart disease in turkeys; sudden death is caused by cardiac arrest & onset is within the first few weeks of life

DCM (dilated cardiomyopathy)

57
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DCM in turkeys is caused by a deletion in intron 7 that causes skipping of exon 8 in the cardiac ______ gene

Troponin T

58
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incorporation of the mutant troponin T into the myofibrils negatively affects cardiac muscle contractility in turkeys with DCM; this is an example of a _______________

dominant negative

59
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___ refers to the number of chromosomes found in gametes

N

60
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the number of chromosomes found in somatic celsl (1N, 2N, 4N)

2N (diploid )

61
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non-sex chromosomes

autosomes

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typically X and Y (or W and Z in birds)

sex chromsoomes

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the (females or males) are homogametic XX in mammales

females

64
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the females or males are homogametic ZZ in birds

males

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the phase of the cell cycle that includes mitosis and cytokinesis

M phase

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Stage of interphase in which cell grows and performs its normal functions

G1 phase

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the phase of the cell cycle where DNA is replicated

S phase

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the phase of the cell cycle that involves growth and preparation for mitosis

G2 phase

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part of the cell cycle that includes G1, S and G2

interphase

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area where the chromatids of a chromosome are attached

centromere

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short arm of chromosome

p arm

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long arm of chromosome

q arm

73
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chromosomes that are given the same number, but are of opposite parental origin

homologues

74
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type of chromosomes in which the centromere is in the middle

metacentric

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type of chromosomes in which centromere is slightly off center

submetacentric

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type of chromosome in which centromere is located at the terminal end

acrocentric

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a display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by increasing size and shape

karyotype

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abbreviation that represents bovine chromosome number 4

BTA4

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abbreviation that represents canine cromosome number 7

CFA7

80
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abbreviation that represents human chromosome number 8

HSA8

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abbreviation that represents horse chromosome number 2

ECA2

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abbreviation that represents cat chromosome number 1

FCA1

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abbreviation that represents pig chromosome 9

SSC9

84
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Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis; gives us a mixture of traits

crossing over

85
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chromosome number (n) is a gamete = 1 N

haploid

86
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chromosome number (n) is a zygote = 2N

diploid

87
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basic unit of inheritance

gene

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form/version of a gene

allele

89
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both alleles are the same (AA or aa)

homozygous

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both alleles are different (Aa)

heterozygous

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only 1 allele is possible (allele on X or Y chromosome in males)

hemizygous

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T/F: there are only 2 alleles per gene in mammals

false (you may only have 2 out of XXX, but there can be multiple forms of a gene you do not have)

93
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phenotype is seen in heterozygotes

dominant

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phenotype only expressed in homozygotes

recessive

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pattern of inheritance in which there is a blended phenotype, a mix between two alleles

incomplete dominance

96
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a condition in which both alleles for a gene are fully expressed

codominance

97
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genetic constitution or alleles present

genotype

98
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physical manifestation of a genotype + environment

phenotype

99
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individual has a gene but doesn’t express the phenotype

incomplete penetrance

100
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Refers to how individuals with the same genotype can have related phenotypes that vary in intensity

variable expressivity