Anatomy and Physiology Lab Review Pt 1

A comprehensive collection of practice flashcards in Question-and-Answer format covering all major topics from Anatomy & Physiology Labs 1 through 5.

What are the levels of structural hierarchy in the human body from smallest to largest?

Atomic, Molecular/Chemical, Organelle, Cellular, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, and Organism.

What organ systems are represented by the mnemonic "RUN MRS. LIDEC"?

Respiratory, Urinary, Nervous, Muscular, Reproductive, Skeletal, Lymphatic, Integumentary, Digestive, Endocrine, and Cardiovascular.

What are the specific physical positioning requirements for the human body in standard anatomical position?

Body upright, facing forward, head erect, eyes open, arms straight by the sides with palms facing forward, knees straight, and feet together flat on the ground.

Which anatomical planes divide the body into left/right halves, anterior/posterior portions, and superior/inferior parts?

The median (midsagittal) plane divides the body equally into left and right halves; the frontal (coronal) plane divides it into anterior and posterior portions; and the transverse (horizontal) plane divides it into superior and inferior parts.

How do directional anatomical terms define locations relative to the midline, trunk, and body surface?

Medial is toward the midline, lateral is toward the side; proximal is nearer the trunk for extremities, distal is farther from the trunk; superficial is toward the surface, and deep is toward the core.

What organs and sub-cavities are contained within the thoracic cavity?

The thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs, subdivided into pleural cavities (for the lungs), the pericardial cavity (for the heart), and the mediastinum (between pleural cavities containing heart, esophagus, and vessels).

What are the 9 regions of the abdomen defined by the subcostal, intertubercular, and midclavicular lines?

Right hypochondriac, Epigastric, Left hypochondriac, Right lumbar, Umbilical, Left lumbar, Right inguinal, Hypogastric, and Left inguinal regions.

Which primary organs are located in the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) versus the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)?

RUQ contains the right lobe of the liver, gallbladder, right kidney, and portions of the stomach, small, and large intestine; RLQ contains the cecum, appendix, portions of small intestine, right ureter, and right reproductive organs.

How is total magnification calculated on a compound light microscope?

Total Lens Magnification = Ocular Lens Magnification ($10\times$) $\times$ Objective Lens Magnification ($4\times$, $10\times$, $40\times$, or $100\times$).

How does the field of view change as microscope objective magnification increases?

As magnification increases, the field of view decreases.

What are the primary structural components that make up a human cell?

The plasma membrane (outer boundary composed of a phospholipid bilayer) and the cytoplasm (containing cytosol, cytoskeleton, organelles, and other cellular structures).

What is the primary function of mitochondria in the cell?

Mitochondria convert stored chemical energy in sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids into stored chemical energy in molecules of adenosine triphosphate ($\text{ATP}$).

What structural and functional distinctions separate rough endoplasmic reticulum from smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

Rough endoplasmic reticulum contains bound ribosomes and synthesizes proteins for outside the cell; smooth endoplasmic reticulum lacks ribosomes and produces lipid compounds.

What is the function of the Golgi complex?

It receives material from the endoplasmic reticulum and cytoplasm, assembles large molecules, and transports material out of the cell via secretory vesicles like lysosomes and peroxisomes.

How do lysosomes and peroxisomes differ in function?

Lysosomes are vesicles filled with digestive enzymes that remove damaged or old organelles; peroxisomes use enzymes to convert hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

What are the structural differences between microvilli and cilia/flagella?

Microvilli are small extensions of the plasma membrane that increase cell surface area in digestive and urinary systems; cilia and flagella are microtubule bundles covered by plasma membrane that extend from cell edges to aid movement.

What are the three main events comprising the cell cycle?

Interphase, Mitosis, and Cytokinesis.

What occurs during the $G_1$, S, and $G_2$ subphases of Interphase?

During $G_1$ the cell grows and produces organelles; during S phase DNA is duplicated; during $G_2$ the cell continues to grow and prepares for mitosis.

What major nuclear and chromosomal events occur during Prophase of mitosis?

Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes, and both the nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

What characterizes Metaphase and Anaphase during mitosis?

In Metaphase, chromosomes line up along the center of the cell at the metaphase plate; in Anaphase, chromosomes split and daughter chromosomes migrate toward opposite poles.

What is Cytokinesis, and when does it begin?

Cytokinesis is the physical splitting of the cell's cytoplasm into two daughter cells; it begins during late anaphase or early telophase.

What are the four major tissue types of the human body and their general functions?

Epithelia (covers surfaces, lines passageways, produces secretions), Connective tissues (fills spaces, provides structural support, stores energy), Muscle tissue (contracts for active movement), and Neural tissue (conducts electrical impulses).

How are epithelial tissues categorized by cell shape and layer arrangement?

Categorized by shape into squamous (flat), cuboidal (cube-like), and columnar (tall); and by layers into simple (single layer) and stratified (multiple layers).

Where is simple squamous epithelium located, and what are its functions?

Located in mesothelia lining body cavities, endothelia lining heart and blood vessels, kidney tubules, cornea, and alveoli of lungs; functions to reduce friction, control vessel permeability, and perform absorption and secretion.

What are the locations and functions of stratified squamous epithelium?

Located on the skin surface and lining the mouth, throat, esophagus, rectum, anus, and vagina; functions to provide physical protection against abrasions, pathogens, and chemical attack.

What distinguishes pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium from true stratified epithelium?

All cells originate from the basement membrane (though nuclei sit at different levels), and it is often ciliated; located in respiratory passages to secrete mucus and trap dust particles.

What histological features distinguish smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle tissues?

Smooth muscle is nonstriated, spindle-shaped, uninucleated, and involuntary; cardiac muscle is striated, branched, involuntary, uninucleated, and linked by gap junctions; skeletal muscle is striated, multinucleated, and voluntary.

What are the three major regions of a neuron in neural tissue?

Dendrites, the nerve cell body (soma), and the axon.

What embryonic tissue gives rise to all connective tissues, and what defines connective tissue matrix?

Connective tissue arises from embryonic mesenchyme; its matrix consists of extracellular material made of protein fibers and a fluid, gel, or solid ground substance.

How do dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues differ structurally and functionally?

Dense regular connective tissue has parallel collagenous fibers found in ligaments and tendons; dense irregular connective tissue has collagenous fibers running in many directions found in the deep dermis and sclera.

What structural features distinguish loose areolar tissue from reticular tissue?

Areolar tissue contains large pink collagenous fibers mixed with dark elastic and reticular fibers; reticular tissue consists of branched reticular fibers with a glycoprotein coat providing framework for soft organs like the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes.

What are the structural features and main functions of hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage?

Hyaline cartilage has chondrocytes in lacunae with collagenous fibers for a glassy look (reduces joint friction); elastic cartilage contains dark netlike elastic fibers (flexible framework for ear/epiglottis); fibrocartilage has dense collagen bundles (protects weight-bearing joints).

What are the two major anatomical divisions of the human skeleton and their bone counts?

Axial skeleton ($80$ bones, along the vertical axis) and Appendicular skeleton ($126$ bones, limbs and girdles); totaling $206$ adult bones.

What are the six shape classifications of bones in the human body?

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, sesamoid bones (develop in tendons), and sutural bones (found in skull sutures).

What are the differences between a condyle, a head, a trochanter, and a tuberosity?

Condyle: large rounded articular process; Head: hemispheric projection articulating with bone; Trochanter: large bump found only on the femur; Tuberosity: relatively large, rough knoblike area.

How do bone depressions like a foramen, fossa, meatus, and fissure differ?

Foramen: shallow/round hole; Fossa: shallow surface depression; Meatus: tunnel or deep tubelike passage; Fissure: long, deep cleft or narrow opening.

What is the relative composition of organic versus inorganic matter in bone matrix by weight?

Organic matter (cells and collagen fibers) makes up $\frac{1}{3}$ of bone by weight; Inorganic matter (hydroxyapatite and calcium phosphate salts) makes up $\frac{2}{3}$ by weight.

What functional roles do osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts perform in bone tissue?

Osteoblasts are active bone-forming cells that synthesize matrix; osteocytes are mature cells residing in lacunae that maintain tissue; osteoclasts are large multinucleated cells that resorb/break down bone matrix using lysosomal enzymes.

What are the functional meanings of cell suffixes -blast, -clast, and -cyte?

-blast indicates an active cell growing or secreting matrix; -clast indicates a cell actively breaking down matrix; -cyte indicates a mature resting cell.

What structural regions define a long bone?

Diaphysis (shaft containing compact bone and medullary cavity), Epiphysis (expanded ends containing spongy bone and articular cartilage), Metaphysis (region between epiphysis and diaphysis), Periosteum (outer layer), and Endosteum (inner lining).

What is diploë?

The layer of spongy bone sandwiched between inner and outer layers of compact bone in flat bones of the skull.

What are the five functional zones of the epiphyseal growth plate listed from epiphysis to diaphysis?

1. Zone of resting cartilage, 2. Zone of proliferating cartilage, 3. Zone of hypertrophic cartilage, 4. Zone of calcified cartilage, and 5. Zone of ossification.

What are the microscopic structural features that form an osteon in compact bone?

A central (Haversian) canal containing blood vessels/nerves, surrounded by concentric rings of mineralized matrix (lamellae), with osteocytes residing inside lacunae interconnected by tiny canals (canaliculi).

How do intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification differ in bone development?

Intramembranous ossification forms bone directly within fibrous connective tissue without prior cartilage (e.g., roofing bones of skull, clavicle); endochondral ossification forms bone by replacing an initial hyaline cartilage model (e.g., femur, humerus).

What are the 5 layers of the epidermis in order from superficial to deep?

Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, and Stratum basale (mnemonic: "Come, Let's Get Some Beers").

What key structural features distinguish thick skin from thin skin under the microscope?

Thick skin has 5 epidermal layers (including stratum lucidum) and no hair, occurring on palms and soles; thin skin has 4 layers (lacks stratum lucidum) and contains hair follicles.

What cell type in the stratum basale produces melanin, and what is its function?

Melanocytes; they produce brown pigment (melanin) to protect the deepest epidermal layer and underlying dermis from ultraviolet (UV) damage.

What are the two structural layers of the dermis?

The superficial Papillary layer (contains dermal papillae interlocking with epidermal ridges) and the deep Reticular layer (thickest layer, composed of dense irregular collagenous fibers).

How do merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands differ from apocrine sweat glands?

Merocrine sweat glands are superficial, common, temperature-sensitive, and secrete normal perspiration directly onto skin pores; apocrine sweat glands are deeper, larger-coiled, secrete water with organic acids (producing body odor via bacteria), and associate with hair in axilla and groin.

What is the function of sebaceous glands and their secretion?

Sebaceous glands associate with hair follicles and secrete oily sebum to lubricate hair and decrease the wetting action of water on skin.

What are the three main parts of a hair?

Shaft (erupts from skin surface), Root (enclosed within the follicle), and Bulb (actively growing portion at the base containing the vascularized dermal papilla).

How do determinate hair and indeterminate hair differ?

Determinate hair grows to a specific length and stops (e.g., axilla, groin, arms, eyelashes, eyebrows); indeterminate hair grows continuously regardless of length (e.g., scalp, beard).

What muscle contracts to cause goosebumps, and what tissue composes it?

The arrector pili (piloreceptor) muscle; composed of parallel smooth muscle fibers connecting the hair follicle to the upper dermis.

What three concentric layers make up the cross section of a hair?

Medulla (innermost core), Cortex (middle layer containing pigment), and Cuticle (outermost layer of overlapping scale-like cells).

What are the specific functions and locations of Meissner's corpuscles, Merkel cells, and Pacinian corpuscles?

Meissner's (tactile) corpuscles detect light touch in dermal papillae; Merkel cells detect touch in the stratum basale of thick skin; Pacinian (lamellated) corpuscles detect deep pressure and vibration in the reticular dermis.