Biorisk Management, Containment & Laboratory Safety

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering assessment, mitigation, performance, administrative controls, SOPs, containment levels, biosafety cabinets, PPE, decontamination, waste management, and transport regulations.

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48 Terms

1
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What are the three key components of Biorisk Management in the AMP model?

Assessment, Mitigation, and Performance.

2
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What is the goal of Biorisk Assessment?

To identify hazards and evaluate the risks of biological agents and toxins, considering existing controls and deciding if the risks are acceptable.

3
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Define Biorisk Mitigation.

Actions and control measures implemented to reduce or eliminate risks associated with biological agents and toxins.

4
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In the AMP model, what does Performance involve?

Implementing, evaluating, and continually improving the entire biorisk management system to ensure it works as designed.

5
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What is Residual Risk?

The level of risk remaining after mitigation measures have been applied.

6
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Which hierarchy of controls is recommended for breaking the Chain of Infection?

Elimination/Substitution → Engineering Controls → Administrative Controls → PPE.

7
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What are Administrative Controls in biosafety?

Written policies, rules, schedules, and training designed to lessen the duration, frequency, or severity of exposure to biohazards.

8
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Give three examples of Administrative Controls.

Risk assessments, safety manuals & SOPs, and medical surveillance programs.

9
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What is the purpose of a BioRisk Management Program?

To provide organizational structure, policies, and procedures that prevent occupational infections and environmental release of harmful organisms.

10
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List four elements commonly found in a BioRisk Management Program.

Vision/Mission, Biosafety Policy, Training & Assistance, and Program Assessment.

11
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Why is staff selection important in biorisk management?

To ensure personnel have suitable education, experience, and reliability for handling biological agents safely.

12
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What does Medical Surveillance monitor in a lab setting?

The health of personnel in relation to occupational exposure to biohazards, including immunizations and post-exposure care.

13
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Give two examples of Good Work Practices in a lab.

Strict aseptic technique and prohibiting eating, drinking, or smoking in the laboratory.

14
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What is an SOP?

A Standard Operating Procedure—an instructional document that provides step-by-step directions to achieve a consistent outcome.

15
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State the primary goal of an SOP as described by S.G. Kaufman.

Different people doing the same thing and obtaining the same result.

16
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Name the four core components of an SOP.

Conditions, Context, Actions, and Documentation.

17
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How can an SOP be tested for effectiveness?

Verify users understand it, can perform the steps, and consistently achieve the intended outcome.

18
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What does BOD stand for and how is it used?

Behavioral Observation Data; yes/no questions on observed behaviors to validate and audit SOP compliance.

19
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Provide two tips for writing clear SOP steps.

Begin each step with a single action verb and include quantitative information (e.g., 5 mL).

20
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How often should SOPs be reviewed or revised?

Routinely—at least annually or whenever procedures, equipment, or regulations change.

21
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Define Biocontainment.

Preventing the unintentional release of biological agents through a combination of primary and secondary barriers.

22
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Differentiate primary and secondary barriers in containment.

Primary barriers (e.g., BSCs) contain the agent at its source; secondary barriers (e.g., room design, HVAC) contain it within the room or facility.

23
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What biosafety level (BSL) requires controlled access and directional airflow?

BSL-3 laboratories.

24
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List two engineering features typical of a BSL-4 facility.

Full-body positive-pressure suits with air supply and an isolated building with complete decontamination facilities.

25
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Give three critical containment components for high-level labs.

HEPA filters, autoclaves, and inward directional airflow with door interlocks.

26
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What is the difference between Commissioning and Certification of a lab?

Commissioning tests and documents performance of systems; Certification verifies commissioning success and ongoing compliance.

27
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What does a Biosafety Cabinet (BSC) provide that a chemical fume hood does not?

HEPA-filtered exhaust for environmental protection and laminar airflow for product protection.

28
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State the filtration efficiency of a standard HEPA filter.

99.97 % of airborne particles ≥ 0.3 µm.

29
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What substances are NOT removed by HEPA filters?

Gases and vapors such as chemical fumes or radionuclides.

30
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Name the three classes of BSCs.

Class I, Class II, and Class III.

31
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What unique feature characterizes airflow in a Class II BSC?

A protective air curtain at the front with HEPA-filtered laminar downflow inside.

32
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Where should a BSC be located in a laboratory?

Away from doors, windows, supply vents, and heavy personnel traffic to prevent airflow disruption.

33
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Mention two safe practices while working inside a BSC.

Work from clean to dirty and minimize arm movement to maintain airflow integrity.

34
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How does OSHA define Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against infectious materials.

35
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List three factors influencing PPE selection.

Type of anticipated exposure, task durability demands, and fit/comfort for the wearer.

36
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Name four common types of PPE used in biosafety.

Gloves, gowns/aprons, goggles or face shields, and respiratory protection.

37
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What is the primary purpose of an N95 respirator?

To protect the wearer from inhalation of infectious aerosols by filtering ≥ 95 % of particulates.

38
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Why is annual respirator fit testing required?

To ensure there are no leaks around the face seal and the respirator offers the intended protection.

39
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Define Sterilization in laboratory decontamination.

A physical or chemical process that destroys all microbial life, including bacterial spores (≥ 10⁶ kill).

40
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Differentiate Decontamination, Disinfection, and Antisepsis.

Decontamination makes items safe for reuse/disposal; Disinfection selectively eliminates microbes; Antisepsis applies germicides to living tissue.

41
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State four factors that affect disinfectant effectiveness.

Disinfectant concentration, microbial load/type, contact time, and environmental conditions (organic matter, temperature).

42
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Which disinfectant concentration is generally recommended for vegetative bacteria?

2 % domestic bleach or 75 % ethanol.

43
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Give the standard autoclave parameters for effective sterilization.

121 °C at 15 psi for at least 15 minutes (time adjusted to load size).

44
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Name two items that should NOT be autoclaved.

Corrosive chemicals/solvents and radioactive materials.

45
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How is autoclave performance routinely validated?

Using chemical indicators for every load and biological indicators (Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores) at least weekly.

46
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Why is waste segregation important in biosafety?

It ensures each waste type receives the correct treatment and minimizes unnecessary handling of hazardous material.

47
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How should RG-1 or RG-2 microbial solid waste be disposed of?

Collect in color-coded biohazard bags, autoclave, then place in black bags for general waste disposal.

48
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What are the three layers of tertiary packaging for inter-facility transport?

Primary leak-proof container, secondary leak-proof container with absorbent, and durable outer packaging with labels.