WGU D315 - PRE-ASSESSMENT: NETWORK AND SECURITY - FOUNDATIONS

Which OSI layer is related to the function of the IP protocol suite?

a. Transport

b. Network

c. Data Link

d. Session

Network

Which OSI layer is responsible for organizing how bits are passed over the physical layer between devices within the same collision domain?

a. Frame

b. Connection

c. Transport

d. Data Link

Data Link

Which OSI layer would define the scope of a protocol that makes sure packets of data are received correctly and resends them if they are not?

a. Validation

b. Transmission

c. Transport

d. Connection

Transport

Which protocol suite performs functions of OSI layer 4?

a. IPX

b. MAC

c. CSMA/CD

d. TCP

TCP

Which type of Ethernet cable can maintain 10Gbps transmission speeds through the course of its maximum 100-meter length?

a. CAT 5e

b. CAT 5

c. CAT 3

d. CAT 6a

CAT 6a

Which Internet access technology uses ordinary telephone wires for data transmission?

a. DSL

b. Cable

c. Wi-Fi

d. Hotspot

DSL

Which network device is used to connect two or more network segments by performing OSI layer 3 functions like packet-forwarding?

a. Router

b. Repeater

c. Wire

d. Switch

Router

Which network device is used to convert between digital information from a LAN and analog signals for transmission over a standard telephone wire?

a. Repeater

b. Modem

c. Signal Generator

d. Bit Stretcher

Modem

Which device could be used to send commands to the mainframe for remote execution in early mainframe installations?

a. Distributed Screens

b. Dumb Terminals

c. Execution Displays

d. Command Receivers

Dumb Terminals

Which command produces the following output?

Non-authoritative answer:

Name: www.google.com

Address: 172.217.11.132

a. dig

b. nslookup

d. whois

d. nmap

nslookup

Which command should be used to manually enter the default gateway for a computer?

a. route

b. ipconfig

c. arp

d. netstat

route

What type of medium is commonly used within a 1000 Mbps Ethernet network?

a. CAT 5

b. CAT5e

c. Coax

d. Wireless

CAT5e

In which physical LAN topology are nodes connected to each other with a backbone cable that loops around and ends at the same point it started?

a. Ring

b. Bus

c. Star

d. Tree

Ring

Which cloud service provides hardware, operating systems, and web servers but not end-user applications?

a. IaaS

b. PaaS

c. SaaS

d. RaaS

PaaS

What are the two wireless infrastructure modes?

Public

Ad hoc

Serverless

SSID

Infrastructure

Ad hoc, Infrastructure

Which device is used to organize network cables as they run between switches and other network devices?

a. Jack

b. Hub

c. Patch Panel

d. Router

Patch Panel

Which device is responsible for implementing network address translation (NAT)?

a. Modem

b. Router

c. NIC

d. Switch

Router

Which network diagnostic tool displays the path packets take between two endpoints?

a. ifconfig

b. traceroute

c. ftp

d. nslookup

traceroute

Which network type is used to wire multiple PCs to a home router?

a. LAN

b. PAN

c. MAN

d. WAN

LAN

An office's infrastructure connects network devices and printers through a central access point without the use of cabling. Which network type does this office use?

a. WLAN

b. WAN

c. CAN

d. SAN

WLAN

Which network topology is shown in the following diagram?

a. Full mesh answer

b. Star

c. Bus

d. Ring

Full Mesh

Which network topology is being implemented when each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway for signals through each node?

a. Star

b. Full Mesh

c. Ring

d. Bus

Ring

Which OSI layer ensures error-free packets?

a. Application

b. Transport

c. Session

d. Presentation

Transport

Which topology uses a switch or hub to connect to all devices in the same network?

a. Mesh

b. Ring

c. Star

d. Bus

Star

An employee that does not want to miss emails from important clients sets up her cellular smartphone to allow her to check email. Unfortunately, she does not install antivirus software on the cellular phone. What type of vulnerability is represented?

a. Industry threat

b. Misconfigured firewall rules

c. Weak passwords

d. BYOD/Mobile

BYOD/Mobile

Which feature of a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) uses a lists of known bad IP addresses to protect the network?

a. Reputation-based prevention

b. Anomaly-based protection

c. Behavior-based analysis

d. Cloud-based sandbox environment

a. Reputation-based prevention

Which cloud-hosting model provides exclusive cloud access for a single company?

a. Private

b. Public

c. Community

d. Hybrid

a. Private

Two or more computers connected together over a wide geographical area (e.g. county, country, globe). What type of network is this?

LAN

School Network

WAN

The Internet

Wide Area Network (WAN)

Cynthia is working on her Western Governors University application online, when the admissions website crashes. She is unable to turn in her application on time. What part of the CIA Triad is affected?

Confidentiality

Authentication

Availability

Integrity

Availability

What type of exploit is occurring when an attacker attempts to hide their identity while communicating on a network?

Spoofing

Denial-of-service

ARP poisoning

Smurf attack

Spoofing

An administrator takes a new firewall out the box and plugs it into the network without making any changes. What type vulnerability did this create?

Default password

Industry threat

Weak password

BYOD

Default password

Attackers that choose to perform malicious attacks for profit are called white hat attackers.

False

True

False

What phrase represents Authentication best?

Do you do what you say you will do?

Are you credentialed for the level of access you need?

Did you arrive at the time you said you did?

Are you who you say you are?

Are you who you say you are?

What is the best choice that describes the difference between IDS and IPS?

a. IPS can only detect intrusions and IDS can detect and stop malicious network attacks.

b. IDS can detect intrusions and IDS can stop malicious network attacks.

c. IDS is only used for webservers; IPS can be used in all environments

d. IDS can detect intrusions; IPS can stop malicious network attacks.

d. IDS can detect intrusions; IPS can stop malicious network attacks.

What are two types of encryption?

a. Symmetric encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts data; asymmetric encryption different keys encrypt and decrypt data

b. Synchronous encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts data; asynchronous encryption different keys encrypt and decrypt data

c. Symmetric encryption, a different key encrypts and decrypts data; asymmetric encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts data

d. Synchronous encryption, a different key encrypts and decrypts data; asynchronous encryption the same key encrypts and decrypts data

a. Symmetric encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts data; asymmetric encryption different keys encrypt and decrypt data

Which cloud model provides an exclusive cloud computing service environment that is shared between two or more organizations?

a. Public

b. Private

c. Community

d. Hybrid

Community

Which type of software is used to provide virtualization?

a. Database

b. Hypervisor

c. Antivirus

d. Spreadsheet

Hypervisor

A user that does not want to be identified while communicating on a network uses an application to alter the computer's identity. Which type of exploit is being perpetrated?

a. Denial-of-service

b. ARP poisoning

c. Smurf attack

d. Spoofing

Spoofing

An attacker attempts to misdirect traffic on a network back to the attacker by corrupting the network computer's cache of IP address to MAC address mappings that are cached. Which exploit is the attacker perpetrating?

a. Port scanning

b. Wiretapping

c. Denial-of-service

d. ARP poisoning

ARP poisoning

Which exploit actually breaches the physical medium or uses devices to monitor signals from outside the physical medium itself?

a. Spoofing

b. Wiretapping

c. Sniffing

d. Port scanning

Wiretapping

Which type of attack can overwhelm a web server by inserting more data into a web form than the system was configured to hold?

a. Buffer overflow

b. ARP poisoning

c. Session hijacking

d. Cross-site scripting

Buffer overflow

Which type of attack sends an email claiming to be from a reputable business in order to entice the recipient to provide sensitive information?

a. Denial-of-service

b. Phishing

c. Password attacks

d. Man-in-the-middle

Phishing

A user on a network is planning to launch an exploit against a coworker in a neighboring department. The user needs to identify the IP address of a coworker in the desired department. Which tool or utility will allow the user to watch network traffic in real time to identify a target?

a. Port scan

b. Antivirus software

c. Sniffer

d. Port redirection

Sniffer

Which group of attackers is typically used for penetration testing?

a. Red Team

b. Blue Team

c. White Team

d. Gray Team

Red Team

Which type of attack exploits an unpatched software vulnerability?

a. Zero-day

b. Brue-force

c. Diffie-Hellman

d. Man-in-the-middle

Zero-day

A company has the policy that all new user passwords are P@ssw0rd but does not require new users to change their password. An employee randomly tries a coworker's account with the new user password to see if they can log in as the coworker. Which type of vulnerability does this create?

a. BYOD

b. Weak password

c. Default password

d. Misconfigured firewall rules

Default password

What is the definition of vulnerability, in computer security?

a. It is a weakness which can be exploited by a threat, such as an attacker, to perform unauthorized actions within a computer system.

b. It is a possible danger that might exploit a weakness to breach security and therefore cause possible harm.

c. It is an action taken by a threat that exploits a weakness that attempts to either block authorized access to an asset or to gain unauthorized access to an asset.

d. It is the potential of a threat to exploit a weakness via an attack.

It is a weakness which can be exploited by a threat, such as an attacker, to perform unauthorized actions within a computer system.

What is required to establish a secure connection to a remote network over an insecure link?

a. Virtual Private Network (VPN) service

b. Linux

c. Command Line Interface

d. TOR Network

Virtual Private Network (VPN) service

An organization is concerned about brute force attacks.

How should the organization counter this risk?

a. Install a mantrap and biometric scanner at the entrance of its data center.

b. Implement a system hardening policy that ensures operating system updates and software patches are installed regularly.

c. Institute a log-in policy that locks users out of an account after three failed password attempts.

d. Initiate role-based access to its systems to reduce the possibility of escalated privileges.

c. Institute a log-in policy that locks users out of an account after three failed password attempts.

An organization suffers a social engineering attack that results in a cybercriminal gaining access to its networks and to its customers' private information.

How can the organization mitigate this risk in the future?

a. Update user antivirus software to the latest version

b. Implement a stronger password policy

c. Provide regular cybersecurity training for employees

d. Install a sophisticated intrusion detection system

c. Provide regular cybersecurity training for employees

An attacker plans to exploit flaws in an operating system to gain access to a user's computer system. What is a prevention mechanism for this type of attack?

a. Firewall

b. Patching

c. Antivirus

d. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

b. Patching

An unauthorized third-party has gained access to a company network.

How can they be prevented from deleting data?

a. Access controls

b. Physical controls

c. Biometrics

d. Man trap

a. Access controls

An attacker has gained access to the passwords of several employees of a company through a brute force attack. Which authentication method would keep the attacker from accessing the employees' devices?

a. MFA (multi-factor authentication)

b. AAA (authentication, authorization, and accounting)

c. PKI (public key infrastructure)

d. TCP/IP (transmission control protocol/internet protocol

a. MFA (multi-factor authentication)

After downloading a CD/DVD burning program, a user notices that someone is remotely accessing the computer during nighttime hours.

Which type of malware is likely found in the CD/DVD software?

a. Virus

b. Adware

c. Worm

d. Trojan horse

d. Trojan horse

A user is working on a home computer when another user seems to open an application to view documents on the same computer. The user immediately suspects that a back door into the computer exists.Which action should be taken first to deal with the problem?

a. Close the application the remote user opened

b. Begin running antivirus scans

c. Unplug the PC's network connection

d. Open task manager to determine which applications are running

c. Unplug the PC's network connection

A user receives an email from an unknown bank saying that the user's account with the bank has been compromised. The user suspects that this is a phishing exploit.

How should the user safely proceed?

a. Click the link provided in the email to receive more information.

b. Open a new browser page, navigate to the bank's website, and acquire legitimate contact information to report the email.

c. Use antivirus software to scan the email.

d. Report the bank to the appropriate Internet registrar.

b. Open a new browser page, navigate to the bank's website, and acquire legitimate contact information to report the email.

A malicious user was able to lock a user's account after guessing the user's password multiple times unsuccessfully.

Which category of the CIA triad did the malicious user target in this attack?

a. Confidentiality

b. Integrity

c. Availability

d. Accessibility

c. Availability

Which category of the CIA triad is affected when an unauthorized user changes the data within a read-only file?

a. Confidentiality

b. Integrity

c. Authenticity

d. Accessibility

b. Integrity

An analyst has identified an active denial of service attack.

Which category of the CIA triad is affected?

a. Confidentiality

b. Availability

c. Integrity

d. Application

b. Availability

While investigating a security incident, a technician discovers an unauthorized packet-capturing tool on the network.

Which category of the CIA triad is being attacked?

a. Authenticity

b. Confidentiality

c. Availability

d. Integrity

b. Confidentiality

Which type of firewall initiates a new connection on behalf of the client and presents its own IP to the server when a client initiates a connection to a server?

a. Application level

b. Packet filtering

c. Circuit level

d. Stateful inspection

c. Circuit level

Which feature of a firewall allows an organization to use private non-routable networks while enabling communication to the internet?

a. Port Address Translation (PAT)

b. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

c. Static routing

d. Packet filtering

a. Port Address Translation (PAT)

What is the meaning of "state" when referring to stateful inspection in firewalls?

a. It refers to the connection state of a conversation between two computers.

b. It refers to the connection state of a computer to the network.

c. It refers to the two firewall rules needed, one for the sender and one for the recipient.

d. It refers to the inspection of the traffic payload and forwarding on to its destination.

a. It refers to the connection state of a conversation between two computers.

What can a user install to detect malicious software?

a. Proxy

b. Antivirus

c. Firewall

d. Patch

b. Antivirus

Which attack tricks a client into mapping an IP address to a spoofed MAC address?

a. ARP spoofing

b. Evil-twin attack

c. Rogue DHCP server

d. IP starvation

a. ARP spoofing

Which type of port has access to all VLANs by default in a traditional layer 2 switch?

a. Uplink

b. Downlink

c. Trunk

d. Console

c. Trunk

A company provides access to employees' tax and personal information via a public-facing web portal. What should the company implement to encrypt employees' web access to this information?

a. Transport layer security (TLS)

b. Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

c. Advanced encryption standard (AES)

d. Two-factor authentication (2FA)

a. Transport layer security (TLS)

What is end-to-end encryption?

a. Data is encrypted on the sender's system and only the recipient is able to decrypt it.

b. Certificate authorities establish static routes for two systems to communicate.

c. Temporary VPN is established to protect all data communications.

d. Data is encrypted with a private pre-shared key and cannot be decrypted by the sender.

a. Data is encrypted on the sender's system and only the recipient is able to decrypt it.

Which phrase describes unencrypted data?

a. In the clear

b. At rest

c. In transit

d. Ciphertext

a. In the clear

Which type of wireless security protocol is the most secure?

a. WPA2 + AES

b. WEP

c. WPA + TKIP

d. TKIP + AES

a. WPA2 + AES

Which statement is true when comparing AES encryption to Triple DES (3DES)?

a. AES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than 3DES.

b. 3DES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than AES.

c. 3DES is a superior encryption protocol due to the triple nature.

d. AES was designed to run on high-end hardware, ensuring speedy throughput.

a. AES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than 3DES.

What is the best defense against fake access attacks?

a. Never use unsecured Wi-Fi hotspots.

b. Never open unsolicited offers.

c. Never click on a link within an email.

d. Never reply to an unsolicited email.

a. Never use unsecured Wi-Fi hotspots.

Which cloud feature is used to prevent data loss and provide for data retrieval in the event of a disaster?

a. Data backups and archives

b. Database encryption

c. Data cleansing and analytics

d. Database monitoring

a. Data backups and archives

What should a cloud provider use to secure data in flight?

a. Private key encryption

b. Demilitarized zone

c. Multifactor authentication

d. Updated antivirus software

a. Private key encryption

An administrator fails to configure protection for usernames and passwords transmitted across the network. Which component of the AAA model is weakened?

a. Authentication

b. Authorization

c. Access

d. Availability

a. Authentication

A user is mistakenly granted access to customer accounts not required for his duties. Which component of the AAA model is violated?

a. Authentication

b. Authorization

c. Availability

d. Access

b. Authorization

Which network device is usually placed in-line between a trusted network and an untrusted network?

a. Switch

b. Hub

c. Firewall

d. Repeater

c. Firewall

Which type of firewall technology reads and analyzes the actual content of a message before forwarding to its destination?

a. Proxy servers

b. Stateful

c. Stateless

d. Router

a. Proxy servers

An organization's IT department is concerned that malicious insiders may be using elevated access rights.

Which security control can be used to draw attacks away from critical systems?

a. Firewalls

b. Honeypots

c. IDS

d. IPS

b. Honeypots

What layer of the OSI model does a router operate?

Layer 6 (Presentation)

Layer 2 (Data Link)

Layer 1 (Physical)

Layer 3 (Network)

Layer 7 (Application)

Layer 3 (Network)

If a network admin needs to know if a computer is connected to the network and can respond what tool should the admin use?

Traceroute

Ping

nmap

netstat

Ping

A bridge _________________________________________________

a. connects wireless devices to the network using AES

b. connects storage systems using IP based connections

c. connects two networks by forwarding traffic without analysis for which host receives the data

d. provides a direct connection to devices on the same network

c. connects two networks by forwarding traffic without analysis for which host receives the data

IP addressing is used on which layer of the OSI model to route source and destination IP traffic?

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 7

Layer 5

Layer 2

Layer 3 answer

A network admin is configuring an application and needs to be sure that port 4432 is open what tool should the admin use?

Ping

netstat

nmap

TCP_Function

nmap (Network Mapper)

It is an open-source Linux command-line tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications.

TCP is used on IP networks to:

a. decrease the need for switches, and is a Layer 4 protocol

b. increase the security of the network, and is a Layer 4 protocol

c. reduce the overhead of data transmissions, and is a Layer 5 protocol

d. to ensure the integrity and reliability of data communications on networks, and is a Layer 4 protocol

to ensure the integrity and reliability of data communications on networks, and is a Layer 4 protocol

A switch is a Layer 1 device and unlike a hub it creates a direct connection to devices on the network.

True

False

False

Because MAC addressing is a Layer 3 protocol, it is wise to choose a router that can use MAC addresses to transverse the internet.

True

False

False

What is a logical address? What is a physical address?

MAC Address/IP Address

IPv4 address/IPv6 address

IP Address/ Mac address

IPv6 address/ IPv4 address

IP Address/ Mac address

What is an example of a UTP cable?

Fiber Optics LC cable

CAT5 cable

Coaxial cable

InfiniBand

CAT5 cable

If a windows administrator is on a windows computer and needs to get the IP Address of the computer they are working on what tool should the admin use.

ifconfig

ipconfig

netstat

ftp

ipconfig

If a network admin needs to see if a TCP connection is active on a computer what tool should they use?

netuse

netmap

netstat

nmap

netstat

* Show network status and protocol statistics. It can display the status of TCP and UDP endpoints in table format, routing table information, and interface information.

What layers of the OSI model would you troubleshoot if you want to see if an IP packet is being sent to a device?

Layer 6 and Layer 7

Layer 5 and Layer 1

Layer 2 and Layer 3

Layer 5 and Layer 6

Layer 1 only

Layer 2 and Layer 3

Put the OSI layers in the correct order starting with Layer 7 and going down.

1 Physical

2 Data Link

3 Network

4 Transport

5 Session

6 Presentation

7 Application

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

If a network admin sees an IP address only connecting after production hours, what tool should the admin use to start investigating who the IP address belongs to?

ifconfig

nmap

ssh

nslookup

Telnet

nslookup

Feedback: This would provide information about the IP configuration such as IP address, this information is known.

What layer of the OSI model does a switch operate?

Layer 2 (TCP Layer)

Layer 2 (Node Layer)

Layer 2 (Physical Layer)

Layer 2 (Data Transfer)

Layer 2 (Data-Link)

Layer 2 (Data-Link)

Although a NIC card is found in a router, switch and computer, the basic operation is to simply transmit a signal therefore; which layer(s) does a NIC card assigned on the OSI model?

Layer 2 and 3

Layer 1

Layer 6

Layer 1, 2 and 3

Layer 1

The best example of a WAN would be ________________________________________

a. A small office with a Switch and Router.

b. A house equipped with a home router.

c. A company that has a network deployed in 9 countries on 3 continents

d. A local police department that has a private high speed connection to all precincts across the city

e. A University Campus that uses a VPN to connect the new research building.

c. A company that has a network deployed in 9 countries on 3 continents

A router is a Layer 3 device.

True

False

True

What is the best example of a type 1 hypervisor?

a. A network admin uses a system management software to install a hypervisor on the users computers in the accounting department so they can run legacy software.

b. A datacenter copies a database from a server on a schedule

c. A network admin purchases a server to run a web sever, database server and virtual firewall

d. A datacenter uses ESX to provide an application as a SaaS product for subscribers

d. A datacenter uses ESX to provide an application as a SaaS product for subscribers

Choose the best option that represents IaaS, PaaS and SaaS.

a. IaaS is the networks servers, storage and underlying virtual infrastructure sold as a service, PaaS is the platform where the operating system level applications can be run, applications can be developed, databases can be hosted without having to manage the underlying infrastructure, SaaS is the end product or application where the client uses the application but is not responsible for the development, maintenance or hosting of an application.

b. SaaS is the networks servers, storage and underlying virtual infrastructure sold as a service, IaaS is the platform where the operating system level applications can be run, applications can be developed, databases can be hosted without having to manage the underlying infrastructure, PaaS is the end product or application where the client uses the application but is not responsible for the development, maintenance or hosting of an application.

c. IaaS is the networks servers, storage and underlying virtual infrastructure sold as a service, SaaS is the platform where the operating system level applications can be run, applications can be developed, databases can be hosted without having to manage the underlying infrastructure, PaaS is the end product or application where the client uses the application but is not responsible for the development, maintenance or hosting of an application.

d. PaaS is the networks servers, storage and underlying virtual infrastructure sold as a service, SaaS is the platform where the operating system level applications can be run, applications can be developed, databases can be hosted without having to manage the underlying infrastructure, IaaS is the end product or application where the client uses the application but is not responsible for the development, maintenance or hosting of an

a. IaaS is the networks servers, storage and underlying virtual infrastructure sold as a service, PaaS is the platform where the operating system level applications can be run, applications can be developed, databases can be hosted without having to manage the underlying infrastructure, SaaS is the end product or application where the client uses the application but is not responsible for the development, maintenance or hosting of an application.