CompTIA A+ Core 1 | Domain 2.0: Networking

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What purpose do TCP and UDP port numbers serve in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) suite?

A. They identify the type of connection being used
B.They identify the type of data being transmitted
C.They identify the type of cable being used for data transmission
D.They identify the specific Internet service provider

"Correct Answer:
A. They identify the type of connection being used
Explanation: In the TCP/IP suite, TCP and UDP both use port numbers specifically to identify the type of connection being used.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B: The type of data being transmitted is not directly identified by the port numbers, but rather the protocols and their specific packet formats. C: The type of cable used for data transmission is physical infrastructure and not handled by protocols or port numbers. D: Internet service providers are not identified through TCP or UDP port numbers, these are used for identifying types of connections.
Reference: Page Number 74 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main function of a connection-oriented protocol?

A. It focuses on establishing a constant connection over the network
B.It ensures encryption of data transmission over the network
C.It determines the physical route to be followed in the network
D.It manages and operates the connections and data transmission over the established circuit

"Correct Answer:
D. It manages and operates the connections and data transmission over the established circuit
Explanation: A connection-oriented protocol primarily focuses on creating, managing, and operating the connections and data transmission over the circuit that has been established.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While a connection-oriented protocol does establish connections, it also manages and operates data transmission over these connections, not just establish a constant connection.
B. Encryption of data transmission is usually a function of specific protocols and not inherently a role of connection-oriented protocols.
C. Determining the physical route in network topology is not a direct function of connection-oriented protocols.
Reference: Page Number 75 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the different signals exchanged in a handshake during connection-oriented communication?

A. Ping, Pong, Echo reply
B.HUB, Switch, Router
C.SYN, RTS, CTS, ACKs
D.RIP, OSPF, IGRP, EIGRP

"Correct Answer:
C. SYN, RTS, CTS, ACKs
Explanation: In connection-oriented communication, a request to synchronize (SYN), a request to send (RTS), indications that the line is clear to send (CTS), and the acknowledgments (ACKs) for each packet sent and received by either end are exchanged during a handshake.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A refers to the types of Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages, not to connection-oriented communication signals. Option B refers to different types of network devices, not the packets exchanged in a handshake. Option D lists interior gateway protocols that are used by routers to exchange routing data within an autonomous system, not the packets exchanged in a handshake.
Reference: Page Number 76 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What kind of a communication protocol is UDP?

A. Connection-oriented protocol
B.Connection-managed protocol
C.Connectionless protocol
D.Connection-dependent protocol

"Correct Answer:
C. Connectionless protocol
Explanation: UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless, meaning it doesn't manage the connection, transmission link, or data flow. Data is merely transmitted on the line without the use of any form of acknowledgments.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Connection-oriented protocol refers to protocols like TCP, which establish and manage a communication link.
B. Connection-managed protocol is incorrect as it isn't a recognized networking terminology.
D. Connection-dependent protocol is also incorrect as it isn't a recognized terminology in networking, UDP works independently of a connection.
Reference: Page Number 76 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main difference between TCP and UDP protocols?

A. TCP is a connectionless protocol while UDP is a connection-oriented protocol
B.TCP is faster than UDP because it lacks checks
C.UDP transfers data more reliably than TCP
D.TCP is a connection-oriented protocol while UDP is a connectionless protocol

"Correct Answer:
D. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol while UDP is a connectionless protocol
Explanation: TCP, being a connection-oriented protocol, requires both machines to acknowledge each other for sending and receiving data. It ensures reliable data transfer. In contrast, UDP, a connectionless protocol, doesn't require these checks and just sends data without checking if it is received, making it faster but not necessarily reliable.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. is incorrect because TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, not connectionless.
B. is incorrect because UDP is faster than TCP due to the lack of checks.
C. is incorrect because TCP is the protocol that transfers data reliably, not UDP.
Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which connection-oriented protocols are most likely to be covered in the A+ Core 1 exam?

A. HTTPS, SMTP, FTP
B.TCP, HTTPS, SMTP
C.TCP, HTTPS, SSH
D.HTTPS, SSH, FTP

"Correct Answer:
C. TCP, HTTPS, SSH
Explanation: The text clearly states that 'TCP, HTTPS, and SSH are the COPs you can expect to see on the A+ Core 1 exam.'
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): (A) - SMTP and FTP are not covered explicitly in the A+ Core 1 exam according to the text. (B) - SMTP is not covered explicitly in the A+ Core 1 exam based on the text. (D) - FTP is not covered explicitly in the A+ Core 1 exam as per the text.
Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the role of TLS in HTTPS?

A. It supplies the connection-oriented assurance of the communication
B.It encrypts the standard HTTP packet
C.It defines the characteristics of the transmission such as bandwidth and speed
D.It exchanges messages between the requester and the server

"Correct Answer:
B. It encrypts the standard HTTP packet
Explanation: In the context of HTTPS, Transport Layer Security (TLS) encrypts the standard HTTP packet, adding a layer of security to the communication.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The connection-oriented assurance of the communication is provided by HTTP, not TLS.
C. The characteristics of the transmission, such as bandwidth and speed, are agreed upon in the HTTP session, not by TLS.
D. Again, the exchange of messages between the requester and the server is a characteristic of HTTP, not TLS.
Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What protocol does the Secure Shell (SSH) replace and why?

A. Telnet because it lacks security and doesn't provide authenticate policies or encryption
B.Secure FTP because it's slower
C.HTTP because it's not secure
D.RDP because it doesn't have authentication mechanisms

"Correct Answer:
A. Telnet because it lacks security and doesn't provide authenticate policies or encryption
Explanation: The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is a secured replacement for the unsecured Telnet protocol, due to lack of security and absence of authenticate policies or encryption in Telnet.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B, C, D are incorrect because SSH replaces Telnet, not Secure FTP, HTTP or RDP and it is for security and authentication reasons, not speed.
Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following are examples of connectionless protocols?

A. SMTP and POP
B.FTP and HTTPS
C.TCP and IGMP
D.DHCP and TFTP

"Correct Answer:
D. DHCP and TFTP
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are examples of connectionless protocols that perform functions and services in the TCP/IP protocol suite. They offer less assurance and more efficiency as compared to connection-oriented protocols.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): SMTP and POP (Choice A) use a connection-oriented protocol, not a connectionless protocol. FTP and HTTPS (Choice B) also use connection-oriented protocols. TCP and IGMP (Choice C) are also connection-oriented protocols, not connectionless protocols.
Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What functions does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) perform?

A. It operates on TCP and responds to a client's request for IP configuration data.
B.It operates on UDP and provides data to the client from a range of fixed values.
C.It manages the 'lease' period for the data supplied to the client and its renewal or expiration.
D.All of the above

"Correct Answer:
C. It manages the 'lease' period for the data supplied to the client and its renewal or expiration.
Explanation: DHCP operates on User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and not TCP. It manages the 'lease' period for the data provided to the client and handles its renewal or expiration.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because DHCP operates on UDP, not TCP. Option B is wrong because DHCP does not provide data to the client from a range of fixed values, but from a predefined pool of values. Option D cannot be correct if any other option is incorrect.
Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main characteristic of Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

A. It requires a strong authentication
B.It provides a structured flow control
C.It operates without authentication and a structured flow control
D.It only works for large files

"Correct Answer:
C. It operates without authentication and a structured flow control
Explanation: TFTP is a lightweight version of FTP and it operates without the need for authentication and a structured flow control. Therefore, it is often used for file transfers that do not require verification.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. TFTP does not require a strong authentication, as it's connectionless service aimed for smaller files or files not requiring verification.
B. TFTP operates without a structured flow control, as it's a simplified, less complex version of FTP.
D. TFTP is suitable for smaller files, command sets, or files not needing verification, not just for large files.
Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the role of a router in a LAN and WAN network setup?

A. A router forwards signals from the LAN to the WAN
B.A router replaces the LAN and WAN
C.A router only receives signals, it does not send them
D.A router blocks signals from reaching the WAN

"Correct Answer:
A. A router forwards signals from the LAN to the WAN
Explanation: According to the given text, a router is a device that connects LANs to a WAN. It routes traffic between networks by forwarding signals from the LAN to the WAN.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. A router doesn't replace the LAN and WAN but connects them.
C. Routers both receive and send signals as part of their function of routing traffic between networks.
D. A router doesn't block signals from reaching the WAN, but forwards them from the LAN to the WAN.
Reference: Page Number 80 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What function does a switch perform in a local area network (LAN)?

A. It cuts power to the LAN when not in use
B.It remembers the MAC address of each device and repeats signals to the appropriate host
C.It broadcasts a radio signal for wireless devices
D.It assigns IP addresses to each device on the network

"Correct Answer:
B. It remembers the MAC address of each device and repeats signals to the appropriate host
Explanation: Switches operate by learning the MAC address of each device on the network, and then passing signals between the correct devices based on these MAC addresses.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Switches do not cut power to the LAN. C: Switches do not broadcast radio signals; this is typically a function of a router or access point. D: IP address assignment is the function of a DHCP server, not a switch.
Reference: Page Number 81 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a characteristic of a Managed switch?

A. Each port cannot be configured with different settings
B.It can only function as one Virtual LAN
C.It has no Quality of Service (QoS) control
D.It can function as two or more virtual LANs

"Correct Answer:
D. It can function as two or more virtual LANs
Explanation: A managed switch has the capability to be configured in such a way that it functions as two or more virtual LANs.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect, each port on a managed switch can be configured with different settings. B: Incorrect, a managed switch can be set to function as multiple Virtual LANs. C: Incorrect, Quality o Service (QoS) control is available in managed switch on a per-port basis.
Reference: Page Number 81 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following statements best describes an unmanaged switch?

A. It is exclusively used in large corporate networks.
B.It has management features and can separate devices into different LANs.
C.It is typically used in small office/home office (SOHO) environments and all devices connected to it are in the same LAN.
D.It allows for the creation of virtual LANs.

"Correct Answer:
C. It is typically used in small office/home office (SOHO) environments and all devices connected to it are in the same LAN.
Explanation: An unmanaged switch is generally sold for use in small office/home office (SOHO) environments. It lacks management features and all devices connected to it are part of the same Local Area Network (LAN).
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Incorrect because unmanaged switches are typically used in smaller environments, not large corporate networks.
B. Incorrect because an unmanaged switch lacks management features. It also cannot separate devices into different LANs.
D. Incorrect because unmanaged switches do not support creation of Virtual LANs.
Reference: Page Number 81 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the primary function of an Access Point (AP)?

A. It allows for high-speed internet connection.
B.It is a high-speed switch.
C.It acts as a central connection for wireless network nodes into a WLAN.
D.It acts as an Internet router.

"Correct Answer:
C. It acts as a central connection for wireless network nodes into a WLAN.
Explanation: The main function of an Access Point (AP) is to centrally connect wireless network nodes into a wireless LAN (WLAN). While it can perform the other functions listed, its primary role is to facilitate connection within a WLAN.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Although an AP may help in providing a high-speed internet connection, this is not its primary function.
B. Despite the fact that many APs act as high-speed switches, it is not their primary role.
D. While APs can act as Internet routers, their primary purpose is to connect wireless network nodes into a WLAN.
Reference: Page Number 82 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the purpose of a patch panel as shown in Figure 2.2-4?

A. To connect the patch panel to the switch using short stranded-core UTP patch cables
B.To organize the color coding of your workspace
C.To establish a dedicated internet connection
D.To amplify the network signal

"Correct Answer:
A. To connect the patch panel to the switch using short stranded-core UTP patch cables
Explanation: A patch panel helps connect the patch panel to the switch using short stranded-core UTP patch cables. It's designed with permanent connectors for horizontal cables at the back and female port connectors at the front.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. While color coding can aid organization, it is not the main purpose of a patch panel.
C. A patch panel isn't responsible for establishing a dedicated internet connection.
D. A patch panel does not amplify the network signal, its function is to organize and connect cables.
Reference: Page Number 82 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following best describes the function of a hardware firewall?

A. It runs on individual systems to protect a single host computer
B.It is used to hide IP addresses and block TCP/IP ports from the Internet
C.It filters packets before they reach your internal network and its resources and devices
D.It primarily provides advanced features found on large enterprise systems

"Correct Answer:
C. It filters packets before they reach your internal network and its resources and devices
Explanation: Hardware firewalls are often built into routers or standalone devices. They protect your local area network (LAN) from outside threats by filtering packets before they reach the internal network and its resources and devices. Hence, they play a critical role in network security.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This is the main function of a software firewall, not a hardware firewall.
B. While true that firewalls do this, it is not specific to hardware firewalls.
D. Most software firewalls are designed for this, but not specifically hardware firewalls which are usually integrated into routers and serve to protect entire networks rather than offering specialized features for single systems.
Reference: Page Number 83 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What does Power over Ethernet (PoE) injectors or PoE switches provide to advanced APs and networked devices?

A. Carry only data through a standard Ethernet cable
B.Carry only power through a standard Ethernet cable
C.Carry both power and data simultaneously over a Wi-Fi connection
D.Carry both power and data simultaneously through a standard Ethernet cable

"Correct Answer:
D. Carry both power and data simultaneously through a standard Ethernet cable
Explanation: Power over Ethernet (PoE) injectors or PoE switches allow for a standard Ethernet cable to carry both power and data simultaneously. This means that devices like advanced APs and networked security cameras can operate using these functionalities.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect as PoE systems do not only carry data but power as well. Choice B is incorrect because, along with power, they also transmit data over the Ethernet cable. Choice C is incorrect as PoE does not work over Wi-Fi, but through the use of Ethernet cables.
Reference: Page Number 84 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the maximum power a port can get according to IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) standard?

A. 15.4 watts
B.30 watts
C.60 watts
D.100 watts

"Correct Answer:
B. 30 watts
Explanation: The IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) standard specifies that each port of a power sourcing equipment can supply up to 30 watts of power.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Incorrect; this is the maximum power a port can expect to receive according to the IEEE 802.3af (Standard PoE) standard.
C. Incorrect; this is the maximum power a single PoE port can carry according to the Type 3 (PoE++) standard.
D. Incorrect; this the maximum power a port can handle according to the Type 4 (higher-power PoE) standard.
Reference: Page Number 84 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the primary function of a PoE injector in relation to an Ethernet cable?

A. It provides internet connectivity to the Ethernet cable
B.It adds power to the Ethernet cable
C.It boosts the signal strength of the Ethernet cable
D.It serves as a wireless adapter for the Ethernet cable

"Correct Answer:
B. It adds power to the Ethernet cable
Explanation: A PoE (Power over Ethernet) injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable. It is plugged into a standard Ethernet cable and a source of AC power. The injector then adds power to the Ethernet cable which runs from the injector to the PoE device.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While PoE injectors interact with Ethernet cables, they do not provide internet connectivity. That function is served by other network devices such as routers and switches.
C. PoE injectors do not boost the signal strength of Ethernet cables. They simply add power.
D. PoE injectors are not wireless adapters. They function strictly with wired Ethernet cables.
Reference: Page Number 85 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What does a PoE switch do differently compared to supplying standard Ethernet devices?

A. It detects whether connected devices are wireless or wired
B.It supplies power to standard Ethernet devices
C.It supplies power to PoE devices
D.It creates a backup of connected devices

"Correct Answer:
C. It supplies power to PoE devices
Explanation: A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch supplies power to PoE devices. It detects whether the connected devices are PoE or standard Ethernet, and only supplies power to the PoE devices.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: PoE switches supply power, they don't detect wireless or wired connections. B: PoE switches do not supply power to standard Ethernet devices. D: Switches do not create backups of connected devices.
Reference: Page Number 85 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a significant disadvantage of using an Ethernet hub instead of a switch in a 100Base-T (Fast Ethernet) network?

A. It reduces the signal quality from each port.
B.It subdivides the total bandwidth of the network by the number of connected devices.
C.It disrupts the network traffic due to frequent signal loss.
D.It does not support 100-Mbps speed.

"Correct Answer:
B. It subdivides the total bandwidth of the network by the number of connected devices.
Explanation: Unlike a switch, an Ethernet hub does not provide the full available network speed to each connected port. Instead, the hub divides the total bandwidth by the number of devices connected to it. For instance, if a 100-Mbps hub has four connected devices, each device effectively gets a connection speed of only 25 Mbps.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The signal quality from each port is not significantly affected by using a hub rather than a switch; the main impact is on speed.
C. Hubs do not cause frequent signal loss, their main disadvantage is the subdivision of bandwidth.
D. Ethernet hubs do support 100-Mbps speed but distribute it among the connected devices.
Reference: Page Number 85 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main function of an Optical Network Terminal (ONT) in a fiber optic service?

A. It monitors the speed of service
B.It converts light signaling into electrical impulses and vice versa
C.It acts as a demarcation point where ownership of the device changes hands
D.It is a termination unit installed by the service provider

"Correct Answer:
B. It converts light signaling into electrical impulses and vice versa
Explanation: In a fiber optic service, an ONT mainly functions to convert light signaling into electrical impulses, and vice versa. It does not directly monitor the speed of service, act as a change of ownership point, or work as a termination unit installed by the service provider. These other elements are part of the larger system, but they are not specifically the function of the ONT.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While the service provider monitors the speed of service, this is not a specific function of the ONT.
C. The ONT can act as a demarcation point, but it does not represent a change of ownership and this is not its main function.
D. The ONT is not a termination unit installed by the service provider. The ONT and the termination unit are two separate components in the system.
Reference: Page Number 86 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the two services focused on by the A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam in SOHO Internet connections?

A. Cable and DSL
B.DSL and Satellite
C.Cable and Wireless
D.Wireless and satellite

"Correct Answer:
A. Cable and DSL
Explanation: The A+ Core 1 (220-1101) exam only focuses on Cable and DSL, as these were common broadband services for SOHO networks.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. While DSL is one of the broadband services, satellite does not feature in the A+ Core 1 Exam.
C. While Cable does feature, wireless is not one of the areas concentrated on by A+ Core 1.
D. Neither wireless nor satellite are focused on by A+ Core 1
Reference: Page Number 86 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What type of Ethernet does a cable modem may connect to?

A. WAN Ethernet
B.LAN Ethernet
C.Metro Ethernet
D.All of the above

"Correct Answer:
B. LAN Ethernet
Explanation: A cable modem typically connects to a small home router or your Network Interface Card (NIC) via LAN (Local Area Network) Ethernet, the type common in home and small office networks.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A cable modem does not typically connect to WAN Ethernet, as this type of Ethernet is generally used to connect larger, more complex networks such as those of major corporations or universities. Metro Ethernet is a type of Ethernet used for metropolitan area networks (MANs), not for connections between a modem and a home router or NI
C. 'All of the above' is not correct as a cable modem typically does not connect to either WAN or Metro Ethernet.
Reference: Page Number 86 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What factors could potentially affect the speed of a DSL connection?

A. The distance from the DSL modem to the telephone company's central switch
B.The brand of the DSL modem
C.The size and aesthetic of the DSL modem
D.The color of the telephone line connected to DSL modem

"Correct Answer:
A. The distance from the DSL modem to the telephone company's central switch
Explanation: The text mentions that DSL speeds vary widely from location to location. This is because the greater the distance from the DSL modem to the telephone company's central switch, the slower the performance. Therefore, the distance could affect the speed of a DSL connection.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. The brand of the DSL modem - The brand of a DSL modem doesn't dictate the speed of a connection, but the quality and functionality of the modem.
C. The size and aesthetic of the DSL modem - The appearance and physical size of the modem have no effect on the speed of the internet connection.
D. The color of the telephone line connected to DSL modem - The color of a telephone line has no direct relation with the speed of internet connectivity.
Reference: Page Number 87 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is an original form that a Network Interface Card (NIC) came in?

A. USB adapter
B.PCIe card
C.Integrated adapter
D.Add-on card

"Correct Answer:
D. Add-on card
Explanation: Originially, a network interface card (NIC) was an add-on card that connected a computer to an Ethernet or other wired network.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A USB adapter, PCIe card, and integrated adapter are not the original form of NI
C. A USB NIC and PCIe NIC are used in current computers for possible upgrades. An integrated adapter is built into computers and network devices instead of via a card.
Reference: Page Number 87 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which one of the options below is NOT a layer in the Software-defined networking (SDN)?

A. Application Layer
B.Control Layer
C.Infrastructure Layer
D.Traffic Layer

"Correct Answer:
D. Traffic Layer
Explanation: The software-defined networking (SDN) is defined on three layers which include an application layer, a control layer, and an infrastructure layer. Traffic Layer is not one of the layers in SDN.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A, B, and C are incorrect because all three - the application layer, control layer, and infrastructure layer - are all essential parts of Software-Defined Networking (SDN).
Reference: Page Number 90 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the role of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in radio frequency (RF) band management?

A. To assign satellite orbits and develop worldwide technical standards
B.To solely provide interference-free transmission across the RF bands
C.To handle the maintenance of the satellites
D.To build and launch the satellites

"Correct Answer:
A. To assign satellite orbits and develop worldwide technical standards
Explanation: The ITU's authority extends to assigning satellite orbits, developing, and coordinating worldwide technical standards. Their role doesn't solely provide interference-free transmission across the RF bands, maintenance or building and launching of satellites.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. That is part of their role but not the only one, they cooperate with FCC for interference-free transmission.
C. The ITU doesn't handle the maintenance of the satellites.
D. The ITU doesn't build and launch the satellites.
Reference: Page Number 92 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following statements is true about the Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) bands?

A. They were originally designated for use by machinery that emits RF signals as a by-product of its use
B.They are restricted and require approval for use
C.They are not used for Wi-Fi connections
D.They only support the 802.11b standard

"Correct Answer:
A. They were originally designated for use by machinery that emits RF signals as a by-product of its use
Explanation: The question is asking about the original purpose of ISM bands. By originally designating ISM bands for machine-induced RF signals, they were immediately useful for various industrial, scientific, and medical equipment.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. ISM bands are open and free to use without restriction, as stated in the text.
C. ISM bands are indeed used for Wi-Fi connections, alongside other uses.
D. ISM bands support two IEEE 802.11 standards: 802.11b and 802.11g, not only 802.11b.
Reference: Page Number 93 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What frequency bands does the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) include?

A. UNII-1 (lower bands), UNII-2 (middle bands), UNII-3 (upper bands)
B.UNII-A, UNII-B, UNII-C
C.UNII-1, UNII-5, UNII-8
D.UNII-2, UNII-4, UNII-6

"Correct Answer:
A. UNII-1 (lower bands), UNII-2 (middle bands), UNII-3 (upper bands)
Explanation: The Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) bands include three separate frequency bands: UNII-1 (lower bands), UNII-2 (middle bands), and UNII-3 (upper bands). Each of these frequency groupings is 100 MHz wide.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choices B, C, and D are incorrect, as there are three separate bands in UNII which are UNII-1 (lower bands), UNII-2 (middle bands), and UNII-3 (upper bands). There is no such classification as UNII-A, UNII-B, UNII-C, or UNII-1, UNII-5, UNII-8, or UNII-2, UNII-4, UNII-6 in the context of UNII bands.
Reference: Page Number 94 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is true about the use of channels in the 802.11-based wireless network standard in the U.S.?

A. All 14 ISM channels can be used.
B.Only 1, 6, and 11 of the ISM channels are available for use on a wireless local area network (WLAN).
C.All the 24 non-overlapping UNII channels are available on each of the UNII band levels.
D.Each of the 11 U.S. channels is 2.5 MHz in width.

"Correct Answer:
B. Only 1, 6, and 11 of the ISM channels are available for use on a wireless local area network (WLAN).
Explanation: In the U.S., only 1, 6, and 11 of the ISM channels does not overlap with other channels, making them the only ones available for use on a wireless local area network (WLAN).
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Not all 14 ISM channels can be used in the U.S. The FCC only recognizes 11 ISM channels. C: The text explains that not all 24 non-overlapping UNII channels are available on each of the UNII band levels. D: Each of the 11 U.S. channels is 5 MHz in width, not 2.5 MHz.
Reference: Page Number 94 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

According to the CompTIA A+ (220-1101) 'Wireless Networking Standards' section, what two primary measurements are used to differentiate Wi-Fi standards?

A. Security and encryption
B.Range and bandwidth
C.Speed and frequency
D.Compatibility and wavelength

"Correct Answer:
C. Speed and frequency
Explanation: The text states that 'For each of the Wi-Fi standards, all of which are in the 802.11 series, two primary measurements are used to differentiate them: speed and frequency. Speed designates the amount of data a standard can transmit from one wireless device to another in millions of bits per second, or Mbps. Frequency specifies the RF frequency of the wireless medium.'
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Security and encryption: Though these are factors in Wi-Fi standards, they are not the primary methods of differentiation highlighted in the text.
B. Range and bandwidth: While important, these are not identified as the main ways of differentiating Wi-Fi standards in the text.
D. Compatibility and wavelength: While compatibility is mentioned, wavelength is not, and neither of these are the main measures for differentiating Wi-Fi standards according to the given text.
Reference: Page Number 95 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following statements about Bluetooth is NOT correct?

A. Bluetooth devices communicate directly with each other.
B.A wireless LAN needs an intermediary device, such as a router or an access point, unlike Bluetooth devices.
C.Bluetooth Low Energy (LE) operates at a higher data transfer rate than Basic Rate/Enhanced Data Rate (BR/EDR).
D.Bluetooth devices can be part of a personal area network (PAN).

"Correct Answer:
C. Bluetooth Low Energy (LE) operates at a higher data transfer rate than Basic Rate/Enhanced Data Rate (BR/EDR).
Explanation: Bluetooth Low Energy (LE) has a lower data transfer rate (1 to 2 Mbps) than the Bluetooth BR/EDR, which operates at 3 Mbps.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A: This statement is true. Bluetooth devices do communicate directly with each other by 'pairing'. Option B: This statement is also correct. A wireless LAN requires an intermediary device, but Bluetooth devices connect directly. Option D: This is true as well. Bluetooth devices can be part of a personal area network (PAN) by pairing Bluetooth devices together.
Reference: Page Number 96 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What must be done before two Bluetooth devices can establish interaction between them?

A. Pair the devices without enabling Bluetooth
B.Enable Bluetooth on one device
C.Enable Bluetooth on both devices and then pair them
D.Connect the devices via a cable and then enable Bluetooth

"Correct Answer:
C. Enable Bluetooth on both devices and then pair them
Explanation: Before two Bluetooth devices can establish interaction, the Bluetooth capability must be enabled on both devices. Only then can the devices be paired for interaction.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Pairing devices without enabling Bluetooth is not possible, as Bluetooth is the required medium for communication.
B. Enabling Bluetooth on one device is not sufficient as the medium of communication requires both devices to have Bluetooth enabled.
D. Connecting the devices via a cable and then enabling Bluetooth is incorrect, as the purpose of Bluetooth is to communicate without wired connectivity.
Reference: Page Number 96 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

How do you enable Bluetooth on a Windows 10 or 11 device?

A. Open the Devices page from the Start menu and move the slide switch to On.
B.Open the Control Panel, go to the Devices page, and turn Bluetooth on.
C.Right-click on the Start menu, select Devices, and move the Bluetooth switch to On.
D.Open the Settings app from the Start menu, choose Devices, and move the slide switch on the Bluetooth & Other Devices page to On.

"Correct Answer:
D. Open the Settings app from the Start menu, choose Devices, and move the slide switch on the Bluetooth & Other Devices page to On.
Explanation: Opening the Settings from the Start menu, selecting Devices, and moving the slide switch to On on the Bluetooth & Other Devices page is the correct sequence of steps to enable Bluetooth according to the text.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This option misses the step of opening the Settings app first.
B. The Control Panel doesn't have the Devices page, it's in the Settings app.
C. Settings can't be opened by right-clicking the Start menu.
Reference: Page Number 96 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

To enable Bluetooth on an Apple macOS device, which of the following steps is necessary?

A. Click on the Wi-Fi icon on the Control Center
B.Click on the Bluetooth icon on either the Control Center or the menu bar
C.Enter a passcode to access the Control Center
D.Open the Apple menu and click iCloud

"Correct Answer:
B. Click on the Bluetooth icon on either the Control Center or the menu bar
Explanation: To enable Bluetooth on macOS, you need to click on the Bluetooth icon - either on the Control Center or on the menu bar, and then turn the Bluetooth switch on.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect, Wi-Fi is different than Bluetooth. Option C is incorrect, a passcode is not necessarily required to access the Control Center. Option D is incorrect, iCloud does not manage Bluetooth settings.
Reference: Page Number 97 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which command is used to check the Bluetooth status on a Linux system?

A. bluetoothctl status Bluetooth
B.sudo systemctl status Bluetooth
C.bluetoothctl discoverable on
D.bluetoothctl scan on

"Correct Answer:
B. sudo systemctl status Bluetooth
Explanation: The command 'sudo systemctl status Bluetooth' is used to check the Bluetooth status on a Linux system. You need administrator privileges to execute this command, hence the 'sudo' prefix.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This is not a valid command. 'bluetoothctl' is used for other Bluetooth operations, not for checking the status.
C. This command is used to enable Bluetooth discovery, not to check its status.
D. This command is used to list Bluetooth devices in range, not to check its status.
Reference: Page Number 98 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Why might Fixed Wireless Access (FWA) be preferred over satellite, DSL, or traditional cable connections in some situations?

A. FWA is cheaper than all the other options
B.FWA has better bandwidth and higher speeds than all the other options
C.FWA doesn't require long pulls of fiber optic and copper cables for last-mile connections
D.FWA uses 5G technology

"Correct Answer:
C. FWA doesn't require long pulls of fiber optic and copper cables for last-mile connections
Explanation: Fixed Wireless Access (FWA) may be preferred for rural homes and businesses because, unlike traditional cable or DSL connections, it doesn't require long runs of fiber optic and copper cables for last-mile connections. This can often make it a more feasible option where the cost of extending traditional cable infrastructure is prohibitive.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The text doesn't state that FWA is always cheaper than all the other options.
B. FWA doesn't necessarily have better bandwidth or higher speeds than all other options, but it can provide Internet access where DSL or cable connections might not be available.
D. While 5G FWA is mentioned, the text doesn't suggest that FWA is preferred because it uses 5G technology.
Reference: Page Number 98 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the key feature of IEEE 802.11ah standard?

A. Operates on a licensed 1-GHz band
B.Has a shorter transmission range than other WLAN standards
C.Used for short-range hotspots and cellular traffic offloading
D.It operates on an unlicensed 1-Ghz band with a longer transmission range

"Correct Answer:
D. It operates on an unlicensed 1-Ghz band with a longer transmission range
Explanation: The key feature of the IEEE 802.11ah standard is that it operates on an unlicensed 1-Ghz band and its lower frequency provides it a longer transmission range than other Wi-Fi WLAN standards. It is also used for extended-range hotspots and cellular traffic offloading.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. It operates on an unlicensed, not licensed, 1-Ghz band.
B. It has a longer, not shorter, transmission range because of its lower frequency.
C. It is used for extended-range hotspots and cellular traffic offloading, not for short-range.
Reference: Page Number 99 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which frequency band does the Local Multichannel Distribution Service (LMDS) operate on in the U.S.?

A. 48-GHz
B.24-GHz
C.28-GHz
D.36-GHz

"Correct Answer:
C. 28-GHz
Explanation: The text mentions that in the U.S., LMDS operates on the 28-GHz frequency band.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. 48-GHz,
B. 24-GHz, and
D. 36-GHz are incorrect because the text clearly states that the LMDS operates on the 28-GHz frequency band in the U.S.
Reference: Page Number 99 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Who in the U.S. controls who can broadcast on the available RF spectrums?

A. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
B.The National Security Agency (NSA)
C.The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
D.The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)

"Correct Answer:
C. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
Explanation: In the U.S., the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) controls who can broadcast on the available RF spectrums.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The FBI, NSA, and CIA are not responsible for issuing broadcasting rights for the available RF spectrums. This is the function of the FC
C.
Reference: Page Number 99 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

In a WLAN, which of the following parameters measures the residual signal strength after distance and obstacle attenuations?

A. Radio transmit power
B.Equivalent isotopically radiated power (EIRP)
C.Received signal strength indicator (RSSI)
D.Antenna gain

"Correct Answer:
C. Received signal strength indicator (RSSI)
Explanation: The Received signal strength indicator (RSSI) is the measure of the signal strength received at any receiver within the range of a WLAN. It is the residual signal strength after distance and obstacle attenuations.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Radio transmit power indicates the power level of the transmitted signal but doesn't account for distance or obstacles. Equivalent isotropically radiated power (EIRP) represents the total power a theoretical isotropic antenna (which distributes power equally in all directions) would emit to produce the peak power density observed in the direction of maximum antenna gain. It does not indicate the residual power at a receiver. Antenna gain refers to the efficiency of a radiating antenna compared to an ideal antenna and does not directly measure signal strength at a receiver.
Reference: Page Number 100 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What distinguishes Near-field communication (NFC) from technologies like Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee according to the text?

A. It operates within a range of 4 centimeters.
B.Its signal generation is produced from electromagnetic induction.
C.It has three modes of operation.
D.It is used with tap-to-go payment systems.

"Correct Answer:
B. Its signal generation is produced from electromagnetic induction.
Explanation: According to the text, NFC differs from Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee because its signal generation is produced from electromagnetic induction. This allows passive devices without a power source to transmit information to an active device that enters into its range.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While it's true that NFC operates within a range of 4 centimeters, this doesn't distinguish it from Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee as the text doesn't provide the range of these other technologies.
C. The NFC's three modes of operation are not presented as a unique feature distinguishing it from Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee in the text.
D. Although NFC is used with tap-to-go payment systems, the text does not suggest this as a distinguishing feature from Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee.
Reference: Page Number 100 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What are the three main components of an RFID system?

A. A reader, a transmitter, and an antenna
B.An RFID tag or label, a receiver, and a host computer system
C.An RFID tag or label, a reader, and an antenna
D.An RFID tag or label, an antenna, and a host computer system

"Correct Answer:
C. An RFID tag or label, a reader, and an antenna
Explanation: An RFID system has three components: an RFID tag or label, a reader, and an antenna. The RFID tag or label transmits data to an RFID reader on a receiver device through an antenna.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. A transmitter is not a component of an RFID system. Instead, a reader is used to receive data tokens by the RFID tag or label through an antenna.
B. A receiver and a host computer system are not among the main components of an RFID system. The receiver device contains the RFID reader, and while the host computer system is part of the complete system, it is not considered one of the three main components.
D. While the host computer system stores the data received, it's not considered one of the three main components
Reference: Page Number 100 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is a server in the context of networks?

A. A device that connects to the internet
B.A computer device that provides services to connected devices
C.The main device in a network
D.A computing device that connects to other servers

"Correct Answer:
B. A computer device that provides services to connected devices
Explanation: In the context of networks, a server is a computer or device that provides services to connected devices.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While a server typically connects to the internet, this definition lacks the functional aspect of a server in a network, which is providing services to connected devices.
C. The main device in a network may not necessarily be a server. The server role is determined by whether it provides services or not.
D. While servers can indeed connect to other servers, this does not provide the complete definition of a server in a network context.
Reference: Page Number 103 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What does a DHCP server provide to connected devices?

A. Wi-Fi signals
B.IP addresses, default gateways, and other network settings
C.Firewall protection
D.Encryption services

"Correct Answer:
B. IP addresses, default gateways, and other network settings
Explanation: A DHCP server provides IP addresses, default gateways and other network settings such as DNS server addresses to connected devices.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. DHCP servers do not directly provide Wi-Fi signals. The Wi-Fi signal is usually provided by the wireless access point or router.
C. DHCP servers do not provide firewall protection.
D. Encryption services are not provided directly by DHCP servers but by other types of security programs or devices.
Reference: Page Number 103 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the primary role of a DNS Server?

A. It maintains a database of email servers.
B.It maintains a database of IP addresses and matches them with host names.
C.It provides a database of all domain names and their owners.
D.It is responsible for assigning IP addresses to each device.

"Correct Answer:
B. It maintains a database of IP addresses and matches them with host names.
Explanation: A DNS server primarily maintains a record of IP addresses and their corresponding hostnames. When a hostname is entered into a web browser, the DNS server matches the hostname to the corresponding IP address, enabling the user's system to connect to the desired network location.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect. Maintaining a database of email servers is not the primary role of a DNS server. C: Incorrect - a DNS server doesn't maintain a record of all domain names and their owners; such information is typically held by domain registrars. D: Incorrect - DHCP servers, not DNS servers, are responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices.
Reference: Page Number 103 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the function of a file server?

A. It processes all data in a network
B.It stores files used by other computers and devices on a network
C.It provides internet access to a network
D.It serves as a security system for a network

"Correct Answer:
B. It stores files used by other computers and devices on a network
Explanation: A file server stores files that are used by other computers and devices on a network. These files can be accessed by different users within the network based on their authorization.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. It processes all data in a network - This is not correct because a file server's main function is to store and share files, not to process data.
C. It provides internet access to a network - This is the function of a router, not a file server.
D. It serves as a security system for a network - This is not correct, as a file server's main purpose is not to provide security but to store and share files.
Reference: Page Number 103 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What does a print server manage in a network?

A. Computer terminals
B.Network traffic
C.Network print queues
D.Database management

"Correct Answer:
C. Network print queues
Explanation: A print server manages a network print queue for printers that are attached to the server or are connected directly to the network.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A print server does not manage computer terminals, network traffic or database management. These tasks are handled by other types of servers or systems.
Reference: Page Number 103 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What protocols are typically used by mail servers?

A. FTP and HTTP
B.DHCP and DNS
C.POP3/IMAP4 and SMTP
D.TCP and UDP

"Correct Answer:
C. POP3/IMAP4 and SMTP
Explanation: According to the passage, incoming servers typically use Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) or Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4), and outgoing servers use Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). So, POP3/IMAP4 and SMTP are the correct options.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): FTP and HTTP are file transfer and hypertext transfer protocols, they are not used for mail servers. DHCP and DNS are used for network configuration and name resolution, not mail servers. TCP and UDP are underlying transport layer protocols used in many different types of network communications, not specifically email.
Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following is true about Syslog?

A. Syslog is a protocol specific to Windows.
B.Syslog is used by network devices to send event messages to a server.
C.Syslog cannot send alerts.
D.Syslog can only handle messages from MacOS applications.

"Correct Answer:
B. Syslog is used by network devices to send event messages to a server.
Explanation: Syslog is a protocol that network devices use to send event messages to a server that logs them for viewing. The server can also send alerts which can be reviewed by network administrators.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect because Syslog is not natively supported on Windows, but third-party software can convert messages from Windows apps into syslog-compatible messages. C: Incorrect because the syslog server can indeed send alerts. D: Incorrect because Syslog isn't restricted to handling messages from MacOS. It handles messages generated by network devices, and third-party software can convert messages from any platform into syslog-compatible messages.
Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following options are examples of software designed for serving websites?

A. Microsoft Word
B.MySQL
C.Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
D.Adobe Photoshop

"Correct Answer:
C. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
Explanation: Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) is an application for managing the Windows web server and its websites. It is an example of software designed for serving websites.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Microsoft Word is a word processing software, Adobe Photoshop is a graphic editing software, and MySQL is a relational database management system - none of these are designed specifically for serving websites.
Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the role of an Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) server program?

A. It ensures that all users have equal access to all resources in a network.
B.It only verifies the user name and password to authenticate a user.
C.It determines the user's identity, controls their access to resources, and tracks their actions.
D.It strictly maintains the accounting and audit functions of a network system.

"Correct Answer:
C. It determines the user's identity, controls their access to resources, and tracks their actions.
Explanation: An AAA server program verifies the user's identity (Authentication), assigns the predefined rights and permissions of an authenticated user to control access and action with resources (Authorization), and it provides a tracking mechanism to record the user's actions and results (Accounting). It controls and tracks access to system resources while the user is logged in to a network.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. An AAA server does not ensure that all users have equal access. It verifies user identity and controls their specific access level based on predefined rights and permissions.
B. Authentication can include more than just verifying a user name and password. Additional factors can be used or required.
D. The AAA server does more than just maintaining accounting and audit functions. It also handles authentication and authorization.
Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the main purpose of incorporating Internet appliances into networks?

A. To boost the network's speed
B.To provide different types of network security
C.To increase the network's storage capacity
D.To improve the network's aesthetic appeal

"Correct Answer:
B. To provide different types of network security
Explanation: From the text, we understand that internet appliances are integrated into networks mainly to provide various types or levels of network security.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The text does not suggest that internet appliances boost the network's speed. C: The text does not claim that internet appliances increase the network's storage capacity. D: The text does not mention improving the network's aesthetic appeal as a reason for incorporating internet appliances.
Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the purpose of anti-spam appliances or spam gateways?

A. To speed up internet connections
B.To filter out incoming spam e-mail messages and instant messaging
C.To improve the display quality of a system
D.To store and manage data

"Correct Answer:
B. To filter out incoming spam e-mail messages and instant messaging
Explanation: As per the text, the purpose of anti-spam appliances or spam gateways is to filter out incoming spam e-mail messages and instant messaging, to prevent them from entering a system.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Speeding up internet connections is not the function of a spam gateway, it's a role often carried out by devices such as modems or routers.
C. Improving the display quality of a system is handled by hardware like Graphics Processing Units (GPU) and not spam gateways.
D. Storing and managing data is generally the role of databases and storage devices, not spam gateways.
Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What functions does a Unified Threat Management (UTM) system typically provide?

A. Web traffic filtering, email hosting, and load balancing
B.Firewall, remote access, VPN support, web traffic filtering, anti-malware, and network intrusion prevention
C.Database management, firewall, and anti-malware
D.Server hosting, network routing, and remote access

"Correct Answer:
B. Firewall, remote access, VPN support, web traffic filtering, anti-malware, and network intrusion prevention
Explanation: According to the provided text, a UTM system typically provides security protections of the following nature: firewall, remote access, VPN support, web traffic filtering, anti-malware, and network intrusion prevention.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A and C do not list all the functions provided by a typical UTM. UTM systems do not generally handle functions like email hosting, load balancing, database management, server hosting, or network routing (as stated in options A, C, and D).
Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the main purpose of a load balancer in a network?

A. To manage network security
B.To spread out the processing of incoming request traffic evenly across servers
C.To increase the speed of internet connection
D.To back up server data

"Correct Answer:
B. To spread out the processing of incoming request traffic evenly across servers
Explanation: The main function of a load balancer is to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure that no single server becomes overwhelmed with too many requests. This helps increase network efficiency and responsiveness.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While security features might be included in some load balancers, their primary function is balancing network traffic, not managing security.
C. Load balancers don't directly affect internet connection speed. Their role is to distribute network traffic evenly.
D. Load balancers don't back up server data, they distribute network traffic.
Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the purpose of a proxy server?

A. To act as an intermediary between users and the resources they request
B.To act as a virus protection for the users
C.To increase the burden on the multipurpose server
D.To directly access the Internet without user's permission

"Correct Answer:
A. To act as an intermediary between users and the resources they request
Explanation: A proxy server acts as an intermediary between its users and the resources they request. It fetches the resources on behalf of the users and can monitor usage, restrict or modify access to insecure or objectionable content.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. Virus protection is usually handled by a separate system or program, not a proxy server.
C. The goal of a proxy server is not to increase the burden on a server, but rather to improve performance and control access to content.
D. A proxy server does not access the internet without the user's permission; it acts on behalf of the user.
Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the term CompTIA uses to refer to narrow-purpose computers or servers embedded in machines and other equipment?

A. Hidden computers
B.Compartmentalized machines
C.Peripheral interfaces
D.Legacy/Embedded systems

"Correct Answer:
D. Legacy/Embedded systems
Explanation: According to CompTIA, narrow-purpose computers or servers embedded in machines and other equipment are referred to as legacy/embedded systems.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Incorrect answer A (Hidden computers) refers to no specific term used by CompTI
A. B (Compartmentalized machines) is not a term used by CompTIA for referring such type of systems. C (Peripheral interfaces) is related to the mechanism of connecting external devices to the computer, not the embedded or narrow-purpose computers.
Reference: Page Number 106 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the primary function of Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems in an industrial setting?

A. To control the functions of the machinery and access specific data for efficiency and improvement
B.To physically control the machinery in the industry
C.To reduce the cost of manufacturing machinery
D.To design new machinery for the industry

"Correct Answer:
A. To control the functions of the machinery and access specific data for efficiency and improvement
Explanation: The primary function of SCADA systems is to collect real-time data for analysis of efficiency, cost reduction, and operational improvements by controlling the functions of the equipment and machinery and by allowing organizations to access specific data.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. Although it has controlling capabilities, a SCADA system's primary function is related to data management and analysis rather than direct physical control.
C. While SCADA can help reduce costs, it does not do this by reducing the cost of manufacturing machinery but rather by providing real-time data to optimize efficiency and operation.
D. SCADA systems do not design new machinery, they are used to monitor, control, and analyze the function and data of pre-existing machinery and equipment.
Reference: Page Number 106 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following best describes Internet of Things (IoT) devices?

A. Devices that can only send data over a network
B.Devices that can only receive data over a network
C.Devices incapable of being connected to a WAN or the Internet
D.Devices capable of both sending and receiving data over a network

"Correct Answer:
D. Devices capable of both sending and receiving data over a network
Explanation: As per the text, IoT devices, or 'smart devices' are things that have the capability to send and receive data over a network. These devices include automobiles, home appliances, among others.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A & B: Not accurate because IoT devices are capable of both sending and receiving data over a network, not just one or the other. C: This is incorrect because it is the opposite of the definition provided, as IoT devices are specifically devices capable of being connected to a WAN or the Internet.
Reference: Page Number 106 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which type of address is needed for communication beyond a local network and onto a WAN or the Internet?

A. MAC Address
B.Logical Address
C.Physical Address
D.Local Address

"Correct Answer:
B. Logical Address
Explanation: If the communication needs to go beyond the local network and onto a WAN or the Internet, an IP or Logical address becomes necessary. This is because these addresses uniquely identify any device capable of communicating on the network
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A MAC Address is needed for communication within the local network and is assigned by the device's manufacturer. A Physical Address is another name for a MAC Address. A Local Address does not exist as a specific term in this context.
Reference: Page Number 109 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the IPv4 address representation system that is more human-friendly?

A. Decimal-octet notation
B.Binary-octet notation
C.Dotted-decimal notation
D.Dotted-binary notation

"Correct Answer:
C. Dotted-decimal notation
Explanation: IPv4 addresses are indeed expressed in a human-friendly manner using dotted-decimal notation - for example, 202.34.16.11 - which represents the binary form of the IP address.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Decimal-octet notation does not exist, it is an incorrect term. Binary-octet notation refers to the binary form of the IP address, which is not as human-friendly due to the complex strings of numbers. Dotted-binary notation does not exist, it is incorrectly mixed up.
Reference: Page Number 110 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the likely loopback address on any single PC?

A. 127.0.0.0
B.127.255.255.255
C.127.127.127.127
D.127.0.0.1

"Correct Answer:
D. 127.0.0.1
Explanation: The loopback address refers to the network interface controller (NIC) or its network adapter on a network-capable device, and it is likely to be 127.0.0.1 on any single P
C.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Answers A, B, and C are not correct. Although these addresses are included in the range for loopback addresses, which is 127.0.0.0-127.255.255.255, 127.0.0.1 is most commonly used as the loopback address for a network adapter.
Reference: Page Number 110 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from a comparison between private and public IPv4 addresses?

A. Public addresses can be duplicated anywhere on the Internet.
B.Private addresses are blocked from being forwarded outside of an organization's edge routers.
C.Private addresses are set aside from those that are running out.
D.Public addresses can be used repeatedly for local area networks (LANs).

"Correct Answer:
B. Private addresses are blocked from being forwarded outside of an organization's edge routers.
Explanation: The text clearly states that private addresses are blocked from being forwarded outside of an organization's edge routers. This is done to avoid any possible routing problems and so that these addresses can be reused on different networks.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Incorrect. The text directly states that unlike private addresses, a public address cannot be duplicated anywhere on the Internet.
C. Incorrect. The text does not suggest that private addresses are set aside because other addresses are running out; instead, it says that changes were made to the IPv4 standard because IPv4 addresses were running out in general.
D. Incorrect. The text does not say that public addresses can be used repeatedly for local area networks (LANs); instead, it says that private addresses can be used repeatedly for LANs.
Reference: Page Number 110 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What does a node's operating system do when it is unable to obtain its configuration data from a DHCP server?

A. It blocks the node from communicating on the local network
B.It assigns a public IP address
C.It assigns a placeholder link-local address
D.It generates a new MAC address

"Correct Answer:
C. It assigns a placeholder link-local address
Explanation: When a node cannot obtain configuration data from a DHCP server, the operating system assigns a placeholder link-local address. This address is only valid for interactions within the network segment where the node is located. It's blocked from communicating outside the LAN until it can obtain valida IPv4 address.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. It doesn't block communication on the local network, instead provides a temporary solution with a placeholder link-local address.
B. It doesn't assign a public IP address but a link-local address that can only be used within the local network.
D. There is no mention of generating a new MAC address in this situation.
Reference: Page Number 111 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the structure of IPv6 addresses based on the text?

A. It has 124 bits in its addressing scheme and involves eight decimal number groups separated by dots.
B.It has 128 bits in its addressing scheme and includes eight hexadecimal number groups separated by colons.
C.It has 128 bits in its addressing scheme and has eight binary number groups separated by colons.
D.It has 132 bits in its addressing scheme and has eight octal number groups separated by semicolons.

"Correct Answer:
B. It has 128 bits in its addressing scheme and includes eight hexadecimal number groups separated by colons.
Explanation: IPv6 addressing scheme uses 128 bits and is made up of eight groups of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons as per the information provided in the text.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The text specifies that IPv6 uses 128 bits, not 124, and uses hexadecimal numbers, not decimal.
C. The addressing scheme uses hexadecimal numbers, not binary.
D. IPv6 uses 128 bits, not 132, and it uses colons to separate hexadecimal groups, not semicolons, and the base used is hexadecimal, not octal.
Reference: Page Number 111 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

How is dynamic address configuration performed on a Windows, Linux, or macOS computer?

A. Using the HTTP protocol
B.Through a manual IP input
C.By the TCP/IP protocol DHCP
D.Through the FTP protocol

"Correct Answer:
C. By the TCP/IP protocol DHCP
Explanation: Dynamic address configuration on a Windows, Linux, or macOS computer is performed by the TCP/IP protocol DHCP.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. HTTP is used for web communications, not for dynamic address configuration.
B. Manual IP input does not refer to dynamic addressing, it is a static way of setting addresses.
D. FTP is the File Transfer Protocol and has nothing to do with dynamic address assignment.
Reference: Page Number 113 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What are the primary elements of a DHCP implementation?

A. DHCP server, DHCP client, IP address pool, IP address lease
B.DHCP client, VPN server, IP address lease, Router
C.DHCP server, DNS server, IP address pool, Firewall
D.DHCP server, Switch, IP address lease, IP address pool

"Correct Answer:
A. DHCP server, DHCP client, IP address pool, IP address lease
Explanation: The primary elements of a DHCP implementation are DHCP server, DHCP client, IP address pool, and IP address lease. DHCP server responds to IP configuration or lease requests to monitor and renew the lease of an IP address. DHCP client requests and receives configuration data from the DHCP server. The IP address pool is a set of unassigned IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to a client. Finally, the IP address lease specifies the time period a DHCP client can hold its DHCP configuration.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. VPN server and Router are not primary elements of a DHCP implementation, hence this option is incorrect.
C. DNS server and Firewall are not primary elements of a DHCP implementation, making this option incorrect.
D. Switch is not a primary element of a DHCP implementation, so this option is incorrect.
Reference: Page Number 113 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following accurately describes the process of DHCP client/server configuration acquisition?

A. The client first sends a network addressing identification request, the server responds with an IP address or NAK, the client selectively responds to offers from multiple servers, and acknowledging server replies with DHCP ACK
B.The server first sends an IP address from its pool, then the client responds by identifying itself, then the server acknowledges via DHCP ACK
C.The server sends a DHCP offer to clients, clients choose an IP address, the server then identifies the client's network addressing
D.The client first identifies itself to the DHCP server, then the server sends a NAK or IP address, and lastly the client acknowledges the server's offer

"Correct Answer:
A. The client first sends a network addressing identification request, the server responds with an IP address or NAK, the client selectively responds to offers from multiple servers, and acknowledging server replies with DHCP ACK
Explanation: The correct sequence is that the client first discovers and sends a network addressing identification request. In response, the DHCP server offers an IP address from its pool, or if there aren't any, it sends a NAK. If there are multiple DHCP servers, the client will receive multiple offers, and can choose to respond to each or just the first one it got. The server that the client chose acknowledges the client's request with a DHCP ACK.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. This is incorrect because it reverses the order of client and server communications.
C. This is not accurate because the client first identifies itself to the server, not the other way around.
D. This choice fails to account for the fact that on larger networks, there may be multiple servers, and the client has to selectively respond to their offers.
Reference: Page Number 113 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What does the Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) service provide for a computer running IPv6 when it boots or restarts?

A. It provides the computer with a specific IP address.
B.It provides most of the link-local configurations.
C.It encrypts the data traffic for the computer.
D.It verifies the IP address of the computer.

"Correct Answer:
B. It provides most of the link-local configurations.
Explanation: SLAAC provides most of the link-local configurations for a computer running IPv6 when it boots or restarts. This includes assigning a link-local address that always begins with FE80::.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) service provides configuration, not a specific IP address.
C. SLAAC has nothing to do with encrypting data traffic.
D. SLAAC doesn't verify IP addresses, it provides configuration.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

How does the DHCPv6 process differ from the DHCPv4 process?

A. DHCPv6 uses broadcasting while DHCPv4 uses multicasting
B.DHCPv6 provides a default gateway while DHCPv4 does not
C.DHCPv4 uses broadcasting while DHCPv6 uses multicasting
D.DHCPv6 and DHCPv4 use the same process

"Correct Answer:
C. DHCPv4 uses broadcasting while DHCPv6 uses multicasting
Explanation: Indeed, the IPv4 DHCP uses broadcasting requests and responses, whereas the IPv6 DHCP protocol uses multicasting since the IP version 6 doesn't support broadcasting.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. DHCPv6 uses broadcasting while DHCPv4 uses multicasting: This is incorrect, DHCPv6 uses multicasting while DHCPv4 uses broadcasting.
B. DHCPv6 provides a default gateway while DHCPv4 does not: This is not true, actually DHCPv6 does not provide a default gateway.
D. DHCPv6 and DHCPv4 use the same process: This is not correct, they use different methods for their processes: DHCPv4 uses broadcasting and DHCPv6 multicasting.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is a DHCP reservation used for?

A. To dynamically change the IP address of a device
B.To keep the IP address of a device constant
C.To disconnect a device from the network
D.To allow multiple devices to share the same IP address

"Correct Answer:
B. To keep the IP address of a device constant
Explanation: A DHCP reservation is used to keep a device's IP address constant. This is useful for devices such as print servers that need to maintain a constant IP address.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because DHCP reservations are used to keep a device's IP address constant, not to dynamically change it. Choice C is also incorrect; DHCP reservations do not disconnect a device from the network. Choice D is incorrect as well because DHCP reservations do not allow multiple devices to share the same IP address, they aim to provide a 'reserved', constant IP for a specific device.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is primarily assigned with a static IP address?

A. Only the DNS servers.
B.The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
C.Only the IP address and subnet mask.
D.The IP address and subnet mask, excluding the default gateway and DNS servers.

"Correct Answer:
B. The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
Explanation: When a static IP address is used, the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers are all assigned which allows the device to always maintain the same IP address, important for servers and certain protocols.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Only the DNS servers: This is incorrect because in addition to DNS servers, the IP address, subnet mask and default gateway are also assigned.
C. Only the IP address and subnet mask: This is not enough - a static IP address also involves assigning the default gateway and DNS servers.
D. The IP address and subnet mask, excluding the default gateway and DNS servers: This is also wrong because assigning a static IP address involves setting the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What must you provide when configuring a device with a static IP address according to the given text?

A. The DNS server's IP address
B.The IP address of the device itself
C.The default gateway's IP address
D.The IP address of the other device in the network

"Correct Answer:
C. The default gateway's IP address
Explanation: When a device is given a static IP address, it also needs to be provided with the default gateway's IP address. This allows it to connect to other networks.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The text does not specify the need to provide the DNS server's IP address when setting a static IP. B: While the IP address of the device would be part of the configuration, it's not the answer the question is asking for. D: The text does not mention providing the IP address of the other device in the network.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the comparable command to 'ipconfig /all' in Linux and macOS to see the current IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers?

A. ifconfig/all
B.linuxconfig/all
C.ifconfig
D.macoconfig/all

"Correct Answer:
C. ifconfig
Explanation: The command 'ifconfig' is used in Linux and macOS to see the current IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. It is similar to 'ipconfig /all' in Windows.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The command 'ifconfig/all' is not correct. The correct command is simply 'ifconfig'. B: There is no 'linuxconfig/all' command for this purpose in Linux. C: 'macoconfig/all' is not a valid command in macOS. Correct command is 'ifconfig'.
Reference: Page Number 116 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the primary purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A. It guides the transfer of data across the network.
B.It converts binary addressing and its decimal equivalent into a URL or FQDN.
C.It generates binary IPv4 addresses for sites.
D.It helps remember binary IPv4 addresses.

"Correct Answer:
B. It converts binary addressing and its decimal equivalent into a URL or FQDN.
Explanation: According to the passage, the main purpose of the DNS is to 'convert binary addressing and its decimal equivalent into a uniform resource locator (URL) or a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)', thereby making the internet site addresses more usable and user-friendly for humans.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Guiding the transfer of data across the network is a function of the IP addresses, not DNS.
C. The DNS doesn't generate binary IPv4 addresses; it merely translates them into a more understandable format.
D. The DNS does not help remember binary IPv4 addresses; it simplifies them into a format that's easier for humans to use.
Reference: Page Number 120 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the purpose of DNS in the process of accessing a URL?

A. To provide the requested content
B.To enter a URL into a browser
C.To respond with the IP address associated with the URL
D.To send out an HTTPS request with the IP address

"Correct Answer:
C. To respond with the IP address associated with the URL
Explanation: DNS responds with the IP address associated with the URL that the user enters into a browser. This is part of the process in resolving a URL to an IP address.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because it is the web server, not DNS, that provides the requested content. Option B is incorrect because entering a URL into a browser is done by the user. Option D is incorrect because it is the browser, not DNS, that sends out the HTTPS request with the IP address.
Reference: Page Number 120 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the difference between an A record and an AAAA record in DNS?

A. An A record holds IPv4 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv6 addresses.
B.An A record holds IPv6 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv4 addresses.
C.An A record is used for mail exchange while an AAAA record associates an IP address to a domain name.
D.An A record is used for comments while an AAAA record holds IPv4 addresses.

"Correct Answer:
A. An A record holds IPv4 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv6 addresses.
Explanation: An A record associates a domain name with its corresponding IPv4 address. On the other hand, an AAAA record associates an IP address to a domain name and is used for an IPv6 address. So, the primary difference is in the type of IP address that they hold.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. This is incorrect because an A record holds IPv4 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv6 addresses.
C. This is incorrect because an A record is not used for mail exchange but for associating a domain name with its corresponding IPv4 address, and an AAAA record is not used to associate an IP address to a domain name for any purpose other than holding IPv6 addresses.
D. This is completely incorrect as A record is not used for comments and an AAAA record doesn't hold IPv4 addresses.
Reference: Page Number 120 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the function of the MX records in a DNS server?

A. They control the flow of email traffic in and out of a network.
B.They identify the mail servers that can receive messages for a domain name.
C.They keep track of the websites visited by users in a network.
D.They block unauthorized access to the domain name.

"Correct Answer:
B. They identify the mail servers that can receive messages for a domain name.
Explanation: MX records in a DNS server identify the mail servers that can receive messages addressed to a domain name. They specifically identify which senders are authorized to send messages to a mail client or mailbox.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is not the main function of MX records. They do not control the flow of email traffic, rather they identify who can send emails to a domain. Choice C is incorrect because it is not the responsibility of MX records to keep track of websites visited by network users. MX records have nothing to do with recording browsing history. Choice D is incorrect because it is not the task of MX records to block unauthorized access to the domain name. They only focus on email message delivery.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the function of a DMARC record?

A. To facilitate communication between two devices
B.To define what should happen to a message if the sender cannot be authenticated
C.To speed up data processing capabilities in a server
D.To monitor bandwidth usage on a network

"Correct Answer:
B. To define what should happen to a message if the sender cannot be authenticated
Explanation: DMARC stands for Domain-based Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance. Its main function is to define what should happen to a message if the sender cannot be authenticated. It advises the receiving mail server what to do with the message - either to accept, reject, or quarantine it.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Facilitating communication between two devices is not the specific function of a DMARC record.
C. Speeding up data processing capabilities in a server is not related to DMARC's responsibilities.
D. Monitoring bandwidth usage on a network is not a function of the DMARC record.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the main function of a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record?

A. It prevents users from opening email attachments.
B.It authenticates the origin of emails to prevent spoofing.
C.It routes incoming emails to the appropriate server.
D.It encrypts email content for enhanced security.

"Correct Answer:
B. It authenticates the origin of emails to prevent spoofing.
Explanation: An SPF record identifies the specific mail servers that are authorized to send out email from a particular domain. This email authentication aids in preventing spoofing, where an email appears to be from a domain other than the true origin. Thus, the main function is email authentication to prevent spoofing.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A - An SPF record does not prevent users from opening email attachments. This function is often performed by anti-virus or anti-malware software. C - While SPF uses DNS records, its primary function is not to route incoming emails to the appropriate server, but to authenticate outgoing server. D - SPF deals more with server identity validation rather than the encryption of email content.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the purpose of the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) DNS record?

A. To verify the IP address of the receiving mail server.
B.To authenticate and confirm that an email hasn't been altered in transit.
C.To manage the delegation of DNS servers.
D.To encrypt the message for security purposes.

"Correct Answer:
B. To authenticate and confirm that an email hasn't been altered in transit.
Explanation: DKIM records are utilized to authenticate if a message's content can be trusted and hasn't been altered in transit. This can be compared to a USPS-certified letter, creating an environment of enhanced trust for the senders and receivers. It helps to ensure trustworthiness and integrity in email communication.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Verifying the IP of the receiving mail server is not the primary purpose of DKIM, even though it can indirectly assist in authentications.
C. Delegation of DNS servers is related to NS, not DKIM records.
D. DKIM does not encrypt messages, it's more about authenticating them.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the main purpose of Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?

A. Encrypting data communication between sender and receiver
B.Assigning Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to devices on a network
C.Blocking malicious software from entering the network
D.Controlling access to a device or network

"Correct Answer:
B. Assigning Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to devices on a network
Explanation: The main purpose of DHCP is to assign Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to devices on a network. Through this process, it ensures that each device gets a unique IP address and can communicate effectively with other devices.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Encryption of data communication between sender and receiver is not a primary function of DHCP; this is usually handled by other protocols or services.
C. Blocking malicious software from entering the network is usually handled by firewall systems, not DHCP.
D. Controlling access to a device or network is not a function of DHCP; this is usually completed by other means such as access control lists.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the first step in the DHCP process for a node to obtain an IP configuration?

A. The node broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to the network.
B.The node broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to the network.
C.The network DHCP server scans for DHCPOFFER messages.
D.The network DHCP server sends a DHCPACK message to the node.

"Correct Answer:
B. The node broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to the network.
Explanation: The first step in the DHCP process is that a node, upon being powered up onto a network, broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to the network. This message is to indicate that the node is requesting an IP configuration to be able to communicate on the network.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The node broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to the network: This step is incorrect as DHCPREQUEST is part of the third step in the DHCP process, where the node, now a DHCP client, replies to the DHCPOFFER message to accept the configuration.
C. The network DHCP server scans for DHCPOFFER messages: This step is not part of the DHCP process as described. The network DHCP server scans for DHCPDISCOVER messages, not DHCPOFFER.
D. The network DHCP server sends a DHCPACK message to the node: This is the last step in the process where the server acknowledges the client's DHCPREQUEST message.
Reference: Page Number 122 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the purpose of DHCP leases on a network?

A. To permanently assign IP addresses to nodes
B.To pool and assign IP addresses for a specific duration to accommodate more networked workstations
C.To prevent clients from renewing their leases
D.To maintain the same IP configuration even after a node is powered off

"Correct Answer:
B. To pool and assign IP addresses for a specific duration to accommodate more networked workstations
Explanation: DHCP leases allow the network to pool and assign IP addresses for a specific duration. This process was designed to accommodate more networked workstations needing Internet access than available IP addresses. After the lease time, the IP configuration expires and may need to be renewed or it could be assigned to a different node.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. DHCP configuration is not permanently assigned to a network node, it is temporary.
C. Networks that allow clients to renew their leases provide flexibility and do not prevent the renewal of leases.
D. If a node with a DHCP configuration is powered off, the lease cycle restarts from scratch upon restarting, and does not maintain the IP configuration.
Reference: Page Number 123 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

Which of the following is not one of the types of a DHCP scope?

A. Normal
B.Superscope
C.Multicast
D.Unicast

"Correct Answer:
D. Unicast
Explanation: The three types of DHCP scopes mentioned in the text passage are Normal, Superscope, and Multicast. Hence, Unicast is not among the types of a DHCP scope.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, and C: These answers are incorrect because the text mentions Normal, Superscope, and Multicast as the types of a DHCP Scope.
Reference: Page Number 123 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the primary purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A. To provide a platform for video conferencing
B.To connect computers or networks into a private network as if they were on a directly connected LAN
C.To set up a new operating system
D.To protect a computer against viruses

"Correct Answer:
B. To connect computers or networks into a private network as if they were on a directly connected LAN
Explanation: A VPN sets up endpoints at each end of an encrypted tunnel between computers or networks to join them into a private network as if they were on a directly connected LAN. It works by creating a virtual NIC that gets an IP address from the DHCP server back at the office, thus mimicking a local network connection.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. A VPN is not specifically designed to provide a platform for video conferencing, though it can be used to secure such connections.
C. Setting up a new operating system is not the purpose of a VPN. It is used to create secure network connections.
D. While a VPN can add a layer of security to a network, its primary purpose is not to protect a computer against viruses.
Reference: Page Number 124 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is a primary benefit of using a VLAN?

A. To increase the size of each broadcast domain
B.To eliminate the need for managed network switches
C.To increase the number of collision and broadcast domains while reducing their size
D.To combine multiple Ethernet LANs into a single VLAN

"Correct Answer:
C. To increase the number of collision and broadcast domains while reducing their size
Explanation: A VLAN increases the number of domains, but reduces their size. This is useful for controlling and managing network traffic and resources. It is a core feature of VLANs that it provides separate broadcast and collision domains, which helps in reducing collisions and broadcast traffic in the network.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Using VLANs does not increase each broadcast domain's size. Instead, it reduces the size of each domain while increasing the overall number of domains.
B. VLANs require managed switches, as these switches provide the necessary interfaces and configurations for VLAN operation. They do not eliminate the need for managed switches.
D. VLANs do not combine multiple Ethernet LANs into a single VLAN. Rather, they divide a single LAN into multiple VLANs.
Reference: Page Number 126 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is required to connect a LAN to the Internet based on the attached text?

A. A modem and router
B.The right type of cables
C.The appropriate hardware and associated software
D.An Internet Service Provider

"Correct Answer:
C. The appropriate hardware and associated software
Explanation: The text states that connecting a LAN to the Internet can only be done through hardware that interconnects your computer, LAN, or WLAN to the data transmission medium and the software that speaks to the hardware.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because while a modem and router can be part of the hardware used to connect a LAN to the Internet, they are not the only hardware necessary. Choice B is incorrect because the type of cables used is not mentioned in the text. Choice D is incorrect because an Internet Service Provider (ISP) is not mentioned in the text, and while an ISP is typically necessary for internet access, the hardware and software mentioned in the text are specifically required to establish the connection.
Reference: Page Number 129 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What factor does the type of hardware device used to connect to an Internet service depend on?

A. The location of the user
B.The ISP and the type of service it provides
C.The operating system of the user
D.The size of the user's data plan

"Correct Answer:
B. The ISP and the type of service it provides
Explanation: The type of hardware device used to connect to an Internet service depends on the Internet Service Provider (ISP) and the type of service it provides. Different ISPs and service types use different proprietary devices that are suited to their specific signal type and format.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The location of the user: While the location of a user might determine the ISPs available, it doesn't directly dictate the type of hardware device used. Instead, that's determined by the ISP and its service.
C. The operating system of the user: The user's operating system does not determine the type of hardware device used. Both hardware and OS need to be compatible, but the hardware type is based on the ISP and service type.
D. The size of the user's data plan: The size of a user's data plan may affect the speed of their internet connection, but it does not determine the type of hardware device used for the connection.
Reference: Page Number 129 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

"

What is the typical range of the upload speeds for a satellite connection?

A. From a few to about 100 Mbps
B.From a few to about 50 Mbps
C.Typically a tenth to a third of the download speed
D.From a few to about 10 Mbps

"Correct Answer:
C. Typically a tenth to a third of the download speed
Explanation: According to the text, the upload speeds for a satellite connection vary but are typically a tenth to a third of the download speed.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This is incorrect as the text mentions that real-world download speeds range from a few to about 25 Mbps, and upload speeds are typically a tenth to a third of this, making this choice too high.
B. This value is also too high according to the given information.
D. This choice underestimates the typical upload speed, as it can reach up to one-third of the download speed, which can go up to 25 Mbps.
Reference: Page Number 129 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main difference between Fiber-to-the-node/ Fiber-to-the-neighborhood (FTTN) and Fiber-to-the-premises (FTTP) services?

A. FTTN service types are only available in cities while FTTP services are available everywhere.
B.FTTN service types offer higher speeds and subscription costs than FTTP services.
C.An FTTP connection links the provider's CO directly to a home or office with fiber cabling, while an FTTN connection runs from a provider's central office to a distribution box in a neighborhood.
D.an FTTN connection uses fiber cabling the whole way, while an FTTP connection uses a mix of coaxial and Ethernet cable.

"Correct Answer:
C. An FTTP connection links the provider's CO directly to a home or office with fiber cabling, while an FTTN connection runs from a provider's central office to a distribution box in a neighborhood.
Explanation: The text clearly states that Fiber-to-the-node (FTTN) connections run from a provider's central office (CO) to a distribution box in a neighborhood, and then the home or office connects to this distribution box through coaxial or Ethernet cable. On the other hand, Fiber-to-the-premises (FTTP) connections are run directly from the provider's CO to the premises (home or office) with fiber cabling used for the entire connection.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The text does not specify that FTTN service types are only available in cities while FTTP services are available elsewhere.
B. The text does not state that FTTN services offer higher speeds and subscription prices than FTTP services.
D. The text specifically notes that an FTTN connection runs from a provider's CO to a distribution box and then uses coaxial or Ethernet cable, unlike an FTTP connection that uses fiber cabling for the full connection.
Reference: Page Number 130 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following statements regarding cable Internet service is false?

A. The coaxial cable used for cable TV service can also transmit Internet service.
B.Cable TV service typically only uses a 6-MHz channel, leaving room for other services.
C.Cable Internet services usually offer the same upload and download speeds.
D.Cable Internet connections are theoretically available anywhere you can get cable TV.

"Correct Answer:
C. Cable Internet services usually offer the same upload and download speeds.
Explanation: Cable Internet services typically offer speeds that are mostly asymmetric, meaning the service offers different upload and download speeds. For example, upload speeds could range around 5 Mbps to 50 Mbps, while download speeds could go as high as 50 Mbps to 5 Gbps.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is false because coaxial cable used for cable TV service can indeed also carry internet service. B is also wrong because cable TV service typically does use only a 6-MHz channel, leaving room for other services such as internet or phone. D is incorrect because it is true that cable internet connections can be theoretically available anywhere you can get cable TV.
Reference: Page Number 130 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the primary limiting factor for DSL?

A. The type of switching device at the CO
B.The flavor of DSL
C.Distance from the subscriber's premises to the provider's CO
D.The type of telephone system used

"Correct Answer:
C. Distance from the subscriber's premises to the provider's CO
Explanation: The distance between the subscriber's premises and the provider's CO is the primary limiting factor of DSL. As the distance increases, the speed of the DSL connection decreases.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The type of switching device at the CO does not affect the limitation of DSL, it only supports the always-on Internet connection.
B. The 'flavor' of DSL refers to the different types of DSL available to a given location based on various factors, but it's not the primary limiting factor.
D. The telephone system used, either POTS or PSTN, is used to connect to the provider's CO but does not determine the limitation of DSL.
Reference: Page Number 131 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a major limitation on cellular Internet services?

A. Limited access to 3G, 4G, and 5G
B.The lack of tablet connectivity
C.The data plan is subject to caps on data transfer
D.The inability to connect more than one device at a time

"Correct Answer:
C. The data plan is subject to caps on data transfer
Explanation: Data transfer on cellular Internet services may have caps in place, for example, a 10-Gigabit download limit. If this cap is exceeded, the cost can become very high.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Limited access to 3G, 4G, and 5G - The passage states that there is increasing availability of these networks.
B. The lack of tablet connectivity - Cellular connections are available for tablets, as noted in the passage.
D. The inability to connect more than one device at a time - The passage makes no mention of such a limitation and talks about a router providing for a wireless LAN and a hotspot extending the cellular service.
Reference: Page Number 131 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What does the term 'line-of-sight' in relation to a Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP) refers to?

A. A type of ISP that requires a physical cable connection
B.The sequence of data transfer in WISP
C.The type of WISP service that uses high-powered antennas to connect to fixed locations
D.The view of the user when connected to WISP

"Correct Answer:
C. The type of WISP service that uses high-powered antennas to connect to fixed locations
Explanation: The term 'line-of-sight' refers to the type of Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP) service, specifically known as fixed wireless. This service uses high-powered directional antennas to provide internet connectivity to fixed locations, up to around eight miles.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This is incorrect because WISP provides internet service wirelessly, and does not require a physical cable connection.
B. 'Line-of-sight' does not refer to a sequence or method of data transfer within a WISP.
D. 'Line-of-sight' does not relate to the user's view when connected to WISP but rather to how the service provides internet connectivity.
Reference: Page Number 131 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which network types are expected for you to know in the COMPTIA A+ 220-1101 exam?

A. MANs and CANs
B.LANs and WANs
C.PANs and VPNs
D.TANs and SANs

"Correct Answer:
B. LANs and WANs
Explanation: The text specifies that for the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 exam, you are expected to know the differences between LANs (Local Area Networks) and WANs (Wide Area Networks).
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The choices A, C and D are incorrect because the text does not mention that you need to know about MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks), CANs (Controller Area Networks), PANs (Personal Area Networks), VPNs (Virtual Private Networks), TANs (Temporary Autonomous Networks) and SANs (Storage Area Networks) for the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 exam.
Reference: Page Number 132 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)