Prescribing in Respiratory Medicine

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113 Terms

1
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What is asthma?

  • inflammation and narrowing of small airways

  • usually intermittent and reversible

  • causes cough, wheeze, chest tightness and SOB

  • can affect in children or adults

2
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What is COPD?

  • chronic airflow obstruction

  • causes air trapping, SOB, cough, wheeze, sputum production

  • usually as result of smoking or environmental exposure

3
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Compare asthma and COPD?

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4
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What type of white blood cell is primarily involved in asthma-related inflammation?

  • eosinophils 

5
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What triggers eosinophilic inflammation in asthma?

  • allergens such as pet dander

6
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What type of white blood cell is primarily involved in COPD-related inflammation?

  • neutrophils 

7
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What triggers neutrophilic inflammation in COPD?

  • Inhalation of toxins, especially cigarette smoke.

8
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What is a key feature of eosinophils in asthma?

  • pro-inflammatory and associated with persistent inflammation

9
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What is a key consequence of neutrophil activation in COPD?

  • tissue destruction and airway inflammation

10
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What is the most cost effective COPD intervention according to QALY?

  • flu vaccination 

11
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What are group A COPD patients and what is the inital treatment?

  • few symptoms and low risk of exacerbations 

  • bronchodilator

12
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What defines group E patients in COPD and what is the treatment?

  • ≥2 moderate exacerbations or ≥1 hospitalization.

13
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What defines group B patients in COPD and what is the treatment?

  • mMRC ≥ 2 or CAT ≥ 10. - low risk and more symptoms

    • mMRC - Modified medical research council dyspnea questionnaire

    • CAT - COPD assessment test

  • LABA + LAMA.

14
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What should be considered before adjusting asthma medication?

  • Alternative diagnoses

  • comorbidities

  • inhaler technique

  • smoking

  • psychosocial and environmental factors.

15
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What is the first-line treatment for newly diagnosed asthma in patients aged ≥12?

  • low-dose ICS/formoterol combination inhaler as needed (AIR therapy).

16
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When should moderate-dose MART be considered?

  • If asthma remains uncontrolled on low-dose MART.

17
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What should be checked if asthma is uncontrolled despite good adherence to moderate-dose MART?

  • FeNO level and blood eosinophil count.

18
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What add-on therapies are trialed if eosinophils or FeNO are raised?

LTRA or LAMA for 8–12 weeks.

19
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What is the next step if asthma is uncontrolled on high-dose ICS?

  • Refer to a specialist in asthma care.

20
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What defines uncontrolled asthma?

  • Exacerbations needing oral steroids, reliever use ≥3 days/week, or night waking ≥1/week.

21
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What is poor asthma control?

  • need to use reliver inhaler >3x per week

  • night time symptoms 

  • chest tightness

  • cough 

  • SOB 

  • wheeze 

  • exercise symptoms 

  • reduced peak flow

    • moderate – 50-75% best/pred. PEF

    • severe – 33-50% best/pred. PEF

    • life-threatening - <33% best/pred.PEF

22
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What is poor asthma control?

  • wheeze 

  • cough

  • SOB

  • sputum changes

  • fatigue 

  • grogginess or headache

23
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What type of preventer inhaler is used in asthma?

  • ICS, with LABA or LAMA added if needed

24
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What are the preventer inhaler options in COPD?

  • LABA or LAMA; LABA/LAMA; LABA/LAMA + ICS if indicated.

25
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What is the reliever inhaler used in both asthma and COPD?

  • SABA (short-acting beta agonist).

26
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Which condition may use a MART regimen?

  • asthma 

27
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Should patients with asthma or COPD have a written clinical management plan?

  • yes for both conditions

28
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What physical activity intervention is recommended for COPD?

  • pulmonary rehabilitation 

29
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How is weight managed differently in COPD?

  • reduce if high

  • increase if low

30
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What vaccination is recommended for both asthma and COPD?

  • flu vaccination 

31
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What is the prednisolone dose for asthma exacerbations?

  • 40mg for 5 days 

32
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What is the prednisolone dose for COPD exacerbations?

  • 30mg for 5-7 days 

    • if first episode of exacerbation - 5 days 

    • if patient prone to exacerbation - 7 days 

33
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When are antibiotics indicated in asthma or COPD exacerbations?

  • if signs of infection 

34
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What type of nebuliser is used in asthma exacerbations?

  • Oxygen-driven nebuliser with salbutamol 2.5 mg and ipratropium 500 mcg

35
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What type of nebuliser is used in COPD exacerbations?

  • Air-driven nebuliser with salbutamol 2.5 mg and ipratropium 500 mcg.

36
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What is the oxygen saturation target in asthma exacerbations?

  • >94%

37
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What is the oxygen saturation target in COPD exacerbations?

  • >94%

  • If CO2 retention = 88-92%

38
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Is peak flow monitoring useful in asthma exacerbations?

  • yes 

  • monitor QDS and aim for PEF >75% of best before discharge.

39
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How do SABAs work in the airway and give 2 examples?

  • They bind to beta-2 receptors in airway muscles, causing relaxation.

  • salbutamol and terbutaline

40
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How long do LABAs typically last?

  • around 12 hrs 

  • Indacaterol lasts 24hrs 

41
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Examples of LABAs?

  • formoterol 

  • salmeterol

  • indacaterol 

42
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How do SAMAs work and give example?

  • work on the parasympathetic nervous system

  • cholinergic nerves cause airways to tighten, by blocking these nerves they cause dilation 

  • ipratropium bromide 

43
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How long does it take for LAMAs to work and give examples?

  • slow release over 12-24 hrs 

  • Tiotropium, Aclidinium bromide (Eklira), Glycopyrronium bromide (Seebri), Umeclidinum (Ellipta).


44
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What are inhaled corticosteroid inhalers and give examples?

  • works by binding to common glucocorticoid receptor and suppress chronic inflammation

  • Beclometasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone, Ciclesonide

45
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Side effects of ICS?

  • Oral thrush – ensure patients rinse their mouth after taking these

  • Dry throat/mouth

  • Hoarse voice

  • Increased risk of pneumonia in COPD


46
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What is the recommended eosinophil threshold for ICS use in COPD?

  • only use ICS if eosinophils >0.3.

47
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What is the minimum inspiratory flow needed for nebuliser aerosol to reach the lungs?

  • 6-8L/min

48
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What percentage of a nebulised drug dose is typically deposited in the lungs?

  • about 10%

49
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Why is drug loss high with nebulisers?

  • Medication is retained in dead-space or lost in room air during expiration

50
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Which is more effective: nebuliser or spacer with SABA?

  • Spacer with SABA is more effective than a nebuliser

51
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What is the usual dose of salbutamol used in nebulisers?

  • 2.5mg 

52
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Which inhaled antibiotic is sometimes used via nebuliser?

  • colistimethate sodium (Colomycin)

53
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When can nebulised medication be considered appropriate?

  • If the patient has distressing breathlessness despite maximal inhaler therapy.

54
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What are the benefits of nebulised therapy in select COPD patients?

  • Reduces symptoms, improves ADLs, increases exercise capacity, and improves lung function.

55
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What is the primary pathological feature of community acquired pneumonia?

  • Infection causing consolidation of the lung parenchyma.

56
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What types of pathogens commonly cause CAP?

  • bacteria and viruses 

57
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Name two typical bacterial causes of CAP.

  • streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenzae

58
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Name one atypical bacterial cause of CAP?

  • mycoplasma

59
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Name four viral causes of CAP?

  • respiratory syncytial virus 

  • adenovirus 

  • influenza

  • COVID

60
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List common symptoms of CAP?

  • pleuritic chest pain

  • cough 

  • fever

  • SOB

  • malaise

  • confusion

  • irritability

61
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What does CURB-65 stand for?

  • confusion

  • urea >7mmol/L

  • respiratory rate >30 

  • low blood pressure 

  • age ≥65

62
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What CURB-65 score indicates mild pneumonia?

  • 0–1, with >1% mortality—suitable for community management and oral antibiotics.

63
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What CURB-65 score indicates moderate pneumonia?

  • Score of 2, with 1–10% mortality—consider hospital management or close follow-up in the community.

64
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What CURB-65 score indicates severe pneumonia?

  • ≥3, with ≥10% mortality—requires hospital management.

65
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What imaging is used to confirm pneumonia diagnosis?

  • chest X-ray showing consolidation, ideally within 4 hours of admission

66
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What blood tests support pneumonia diagnosis?

  • Inflammatory markers and possibly blood cultures

67
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When is a CT scan indicated in pneumonia?

  • If there’s a poor response to treatment.

68
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What additional test helps identify viral causes of pneumonia?

  • Viral swabs

69
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What antibiotics are commonly used to treat CAP and how many days is the treatment?

  • Amoxicillin

  • Doxycycline

  • Clarithromycin.

  • 5 days of treatment 

70
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Which antibiotics are used for severe CAP or CURB ≥ 3?

  • Co-amoxiclav

  • Tazocin

  • Meropenem.

71
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What is the gaol after initial IV antibiotic therapy and when should effectiveness be reviewed?

  • switch to oral antibiotics 

  • effectiveness reviewed after 48hrs 

72
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Name four supportive treatments for CAP.

  • Oxygen therapy, fluids, paracetamol, analgesia.

73
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What is bronchiectasis?

  • condition where the airways in your lungs are damaged and produce a lot of phlegm (mucus)

74
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What structural change defines bronchiectasis?

  • permanent dialtion and thickening of smaller airway

75
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What tissue components are damaged in bronchiectasis?

  • Elastin, muscle, and cartilage.

76
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What cellular changes occur in bronchiectasis?

  • infiltrates in cell walls and enlarged lymph nodes 

77
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What is the “vicious cycle hypothesis” in bronchiectasis?

  • Infection → inflammation → damage → progressive lung disease → repeat

78
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What are the key features seen in a bronchiectatic airway?

  • Loss of cilia, increased mucus, destruction of airway wall.

79
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What are the types of bronchiectasis airway?

  • cylindrical 

  • cystic/saccular 

  • varicose 

  • traction

80
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What is the appearance of cylindrical bronchiectasis?

  • Tram-track’ appearance with straight and regular outlines.

<ul><li><p>Tram-track’ appearance with straight and regular outlines.</p></li></ul><p></p>
81
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How does cystic/saccular bronchiectasis appear?

  • Ballooned airways with honeycomb pattern and air-fluid levels

<ul><li><p>Ballooned airways with honeycomb pattern and air-fluid levels</p></li></ul><p></p>
82
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What characterizes varicose bronchiectasis?

  • dilated segments with areas of constriction.

<ul><li><p>dilated segments with areas of constriction.</p></li></ul><p></p>
83
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What causes traction bronchiectasis?

  • Fibrosis or scarring of the lung parenchyma.

84
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What is the clinical presentation of bronchiectasis?

  • chronic cough

  • sputum production

  • frequent chest infections

    • colonisation

  • minor haemoptysis

  • breathlessness

  • crackles on auscultation

85
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What are the exacerbation features of bronchiectasis?

  • Increased SOB

  • Increase in sputum

  • Increase in cough

  • Changes in sputum – colour, consistency

  • Fatigue and/or fever >38o C


86
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Name two mucolytics used in bronchiectasis?

  • Carbocisteine and NACSYS.

87
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When is azithromycin used in bronchiectasis?

  • for patients with ≥3 exacerbations per year, initiated by a respiratory specialist.

88
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Name three inhaled therapies used in bronchiectasis?

  • β₂ agonists (SABA, LABA), LAMA, colomycin

89
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What is the role of hypertonic saline in bronchiectasis?

  • to improve mucus clearance, under specialist supervision.

90
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How often should respiratory physiotherapy be performed in stable bronchiectasis?

  • Twice daily.

91
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What are the benefits of regular respiratory physiotherapy?

  • Improves sputum expectoration, cough-related health, quality of life, and exercise capacity.

92
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When should prednisolone doses be weaned and what is the regimen?

  • if 2 or more short courses are used within 12 months.

  • reduce by 5mg every 3 days

93
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What are the benefits of prednisolone?

  • reduced inflammation by:

    • supressess movement of leukocytes 

    • reduce capillary permeability 

    • reduce immune system response 

94
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Side effects of prednisolone?

  • adrenal suppression 

  • cushing syndrome 

  • increase appetite/weight gain 

  • impaired diabetic control

  • increased risk of infection 

  • osteoporosis

  • sleep disorders

95
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What is the function of mucolytics?

  • break down of chemical structure of mucus to aid clearance

96
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What is the daily dose, CI and side effect of carbocisteine?

  • 2.25 g daily in divided doses (3 × 750 mg); reduce to 1.5 g after 6 months if tolerated.

  • CI - active peptic ulcer

  • Side effect - GI upset

97
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What is the dose, form, side effects of NACSYS and what precaution is needed?

  • 600mg OD as an effervescent tablet 

  • use in caution in asthma 

  • side effects - GI upset and headaches 

98
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When should NACSYS therapy be initiated?

  • secondary care 

99
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What drug class is montelukast?

  • leukotriene receptor antagonist

    • blocks leukotriene receptors to inhibit bronchoconstriction

100
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What is the adult dose of montelukast?

  • 10mg once daily in evening