CompTIA A+ Core 1 | Domain 4.0: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts. 4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization.

"Correct Answer:
D. Dell
Explanation: Dell was not mentioned in the text as a cloud service provider, while Amazon, Dropbox, and Carbonite were.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Amazon, Dropbox, and Carbonite are all mentioned in the text as examples of cloud service providers.
Reference: Page Number 280 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following is not considered a cloud service provider mentioned in the text?

A. Amazon
B.Dropbox
C.Carbonite
D.Dell

"Correct Answer:
C. Who has access to the cloud and its construction
Explanation: A cloud deployment model defines who has access to the cloud and its construction. This can refer to whether the cloud is publicly accessible or privately limited to specific organizations or communities. This could further determine how the cloud resources are distributed and managed.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The type of service or content is related to Service models, not deployment.
B. Security measures can be a part of the deployment model, but it does not define the model.
D. The software utilities used for managing the cloud also don't define the model - these are more related to the cloud computing platform or infrastructure.
Reference: Page Number 280 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What does a cloud deployment model define?

A. The type of service or content provided
B.The security measures implemented
C.Who has access to the cloud and its construction
D.The software utilities used for managing the cloud

"Correct Answer:
B. Internet-based services available to anyone without cost or restriction
Explanation: The public cloud refers to Internet-based services offered to anyone who can access them, without cost, restriction, or authorization. These resources are owned by the providers and include search engines, reference sites, and information and entertainment portals.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Services offered privately to specific organizations refers to private cloud, not public cloud.
C. A private network where data is stored and accessed by authorized users also refers to a private cloud, not a public cloud.
D. A data center where information is stored for backup and recovery is a characteristic of cloud storage but does not specifically define a public cloud.
Reference: Page Number 280 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the public cloud?

A. Services offered privately to specific organizations
B.Internet-based services available to anyone without cost or restriction
C.A private network where data is stored and accessed by authorized users
D.A data center where information is stored for backup and recovery

"Correct Answer:
B. A system that is opened only for a select group such as companies or schools
Explanation: A private cloud, also known as an internal cloud, is a system that is closed to the general public but open to a select group, typically companies, schools, or social or political organizations. It offers access control, security, and specialization.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. This sentence describes a public cloud, not a private cloud.
C. This statement is quite ambiguous and not accurate with the concept of private cloud.
D. This is incorrect because private clouds do have security features; in fact, they are often more secure than public clouds.
Reference: Page Number 280 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a private cloud?

A. A cloud that is open to the public with minimal access control
B.A system that is opened only for a select group such as companies or schools
C.A public connection shared by all
D.A cloud service that has no security features

"Correct Answer:
B. A form of a private cloud, paid for by a community, that allows its members to share information and resources.
Explanation: A community cloud is a form of private cloud that is funded and used by a specific community. The community members share information and resources through this cloud service, making it similar to a community forum or bulletin board.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. A Community Cloud is not a public cloud. It is a form of private cloud used and paid for by a specific community.
C. While a Community Cloud can be used by corporations in the same industry, it is not exclusively for this purpose.
D. A Community Cloud is a cloud service, not a physical bulletin board.
Reference: Page Number 281 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a Community Cloud in the context of cloud computing?

A. A form of a public cloud for everyone.
B.A form of a private cloud, paid for by a community, that allows its members to share information and resources.
C.A cloud service exclusively for corporations in the same industry.
D.A physical bulletin board where community members post information.

"Correct Answer:
C. A mixture of differing amounts of public cloud, private cloud, and onsite resources
Explanation: A hybrid cloud combines the structure, access, and content of public and private clouds in different proportions. It also uses onsite resources, creating a tailored environment
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A and B are incorrect because a hybrid cloud is not exclusively made up of either public or private resources but combines both, along with onsite resources. D is incorrect because a hybrid cloud isn't confined to a single organisation; it can use resources from multiple sources, including public and private clouds.
Reference: Page Number 281 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a hybrid cloud?

A. A cloud environment solely made up of public cloud
B.A cloud environment exclusively using private cloud and onsite resources
C.A mixture of differing amounts of public cloud, private cloud, and onsite resources
D.A cloud infrastructure within a single organisation

"Correct Answer:
B. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Explanation: As defined by NIST in 2011, the original cloud service delivery models were Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS).
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. DaaS (Delivery as a Service) was not among the initial models defined by the NIST in 2011.
C. BaaS (Business as a Service) was not among the initial models defined by the NIST in 2011.
D. BaaS (Business as a Service) and DaaS (Delivery as a Service) were not among the initial models defined by NIST in 2011.
Reference: Page Number 281 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which three service delivery models were originally defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) when the cloud was first established in 2011?

A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Delivery as a Service (DaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B.Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C.Platform as a Service (PaaS), Business as a Service (BaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)
D.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Business as a Service (BaaS), and Delivery as a Service (DaaS)

"Correct Answer:
C. It provides unlimited data storage, database servers, caching, media hosting, and more
Explanation: The passage mentions that IaaS provides not only virtualization and protection against data loss and downtime, but also unlimited data storage, database servers, caching, media hosting, etc. All these are billed by usage, enabling a highly flexible virtualized environment.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the passage does not mention that IaaS reduces the cost of virtual servers, it just mentions that servers can be launched at a low cost. Option B is incorrect because the text mentions that IaaS frees subscribers from managing hardware and operating environments, instead of allowing subscribers to manage these. Option D is incorrect as the passage states that IaaS enables users to launch new virtual servers on demand.
Reference: Page Number 281 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the benefits of using Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

A. It reduces the cost of virtual servers
B.It allows subscribers to manage hardware and operating environments
C.It provides unlimited data storage, database servers, caching, media hosting, and more
D.It restricts subscribers from launching new virtual servers

"Correct Answer:
B. Need to give up control of your data to the provider
Explanation: While using SaaS, you may need to provide control of your data to the provider and trust in its security measures.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While there may be limited options within a single SaaS provider, there is a wide variety of SaaS providers for different software needs.
C. While it is true that SaaS offerings require an internet connection, the text specifically refers to giving up control of your data to the provider as a tradeoff.
D. The cost for SaaS can fluctuate based on the provider, but the text doesn't mention high cost as a major tradeoff of using SaaS.
Reference: Page Number 282 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a major tradeoff of using Software as a Service (SaaS)?

A. Lack of software variety
B.Need to give up control of your data to the provider
C.Unavailability of service without internet
D.High subscription cost

"Correct Answer:
D. All of the above.
Explanation: As defined in the provided text, PaaS serves as a comprehensive service model offering subscribers a customized pack of hardware and software resources via the Internet. It is typically used for software development and testing. It provides tools to software developers to enhance, deploy, maintain, and manage their software products.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Each of the provided options (A, B, C) correctly describe certain aspects of PaaS. However, each alone does not fully encapsulate all the characteristics of PaaS as described in the text. The PaaS model includes not just offering hardware and software resources, but it also provides facilities for software development, deployment, and regular software updates.
Reference: Page Number 282 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What characteristics does PaaS (Platform as a Service) have in a cloud service model?

A. It provides subscribers with access to a personalized set of hardware and software resources over the Internet.
B.It includes features to facilitate software development and testing.
C.It is designed to allow software developers to manage, deploy, maintain, and improve their software products.
D.All of the above.

"Correct Answer:
B. Both involve renting time on a centralized computer to save costs
Explanation: Like the time-sharing practices of early computing, cloud computing allows companies to 'rent' services from a service provider over the internet, rather than purchasing necessary computing equipment. The primary difference is the means of access and delivery of services -- the internet in cloud computing as opposed to dial-up lines in time-sharing.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Neither cloud computing nor time-sharing involve physical transportation of resources.
C. Cloud computing uses the internet for communication and service delivery, not dial-up lines.
D. Both methods are actually used to avoid the need for additional in-house personnel or resources.
Reference: Page Number 282 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following best describes the similarity between cloud computing and the earlier time-sharing computing practices?

A. Both involve physical transportation of resources
B.Both involve renting time on a centralized computer to save costs
C.Both involve use of dial-up lines for communication
D.Both require hiring additional personnel in-house

"Correct Answer:
C. It allows the same resources to be accessed over the Internet
Explanation: The main benefit of shared resources in cloud computing is that they allow the same resources, such as storage and servers, to be accessed over the Internet.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because the virtualized environment is not a benefit of shared resources, but a mechanism to implement it. Choice B is incorrect because the 'dedicated' space for each subscriber is a result of the virtualized environment, not a benefit of shared resources itself. Choice D is incorrect because system, network, and storage virtualizations are not benefits of shared resources, but they are essential elements of resource sharing in cloud computing.
Reference: Page Number 282 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the main benefit of shared resources in cloud computing?

A. It creates a virtualized environment
B.It provides individual or corporate subscribers with a 'dedicated' space
C.It allows the same resources to be accessed over the Internet
D.It implements system, network, and storage virtualizations

"Correct Answer:
C. Resource control and billing
Explanation: According to the text, resource control and billing are the two primary reasons CSPs use metering. The metering captures a subscriber's use of shared resources as they are consumed and this data is then used for resource control (which includes monitoring, controlling, scaling and throttling) and billing.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. While billing and monitoring are aspects of metering, they are not listed as the two primary reasons for metering in the text.
B. Scaling and throttling are aspects of resource control which is one of the two primary reasons for metering but they are not the two primary reasons themselves.
D. Similarly, analysis and summarization are aspects of metering but they are not stated as the two primary reasons in the text.
Reference: Page Number 283 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the two primary reasons CSPs use metering according to the provided text?

A. Billing and monitoring
B.Scaling and throttling
C.Resource control and billing
D.Analysis and summarization

"Correct Answer:
C. Elasticity
Explanation: In the context of cloud services, the term elasticity refers to the ability to dynamically expand or contract resources in response to demand. It is one of the key characteristics distinguishing cloud services from traditional in-house systems.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Resource pooling refers to the cloud service provider's practice of pooling resources from several clients, while system redundancy refers to the use of extra hardware, software or other components to ensure system availability in the event of failure. Load balancing is the technique used to distribute network or application traffic across many servers to improve responsiveness and availability.
Reference: Page Number 284 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which term refers to the ability of a cloud service like IaaS or PaaS to expand services and resources based on demand, often instantaneously?

A. Resource pooling
B.System redundancy
C.Elasticity
D.Load balancing

"Correct Answer:
D. The terms of the Service Level Agreement (SLA) between the CSP and the subscriber
Explanation: The term High Availability is defined by the Service Level Agreement (SLA) which is a contract between the Cloud Service Provider (CSP) and subscriber. The SLA specifies the level of service or uptime that the CSP will ensure that its service will not be unavailable beyond.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The quality and price of the CSP's hardware has no direct correlation with the level of high availability required by a subscriber.
B. The payment made by the subscriber does not determine the high availability as it is based on the terms outlined in the SL
A.
C. The response time of the provider's customer service is not directly tied to the high availability of services agreed upon in the SL
A.
Reference: Page Number 284 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What determines the high availability required by a subscriber in a cloud service?

A. The quality and price of the CSP's hardware
B.The payment made by the subscriber
C.The response time of the provider's customer service
D.The terms of the Service Level Agreement (SLA) between the CSP and the subscriber

"Correct Answer:
C. Synchronized files remain identical to their source file at all times
Explanation: Synchronized files are always kept identical to their source file. Any change made to the source file is also made to the synchronized file.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Backup copies are replaced by later snapshots but synchronized files are always identical to their source file. B: The contents of a backup copy are just as important as its location, if not more so. D: Both backup and synchronized files can be stored either online or offline.
Reference: Page Number 285 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is a difference between file synchronization and making a backup copy?

A. Backup copies are periodically replaced while synchronized files are not
B.The location of a backup copy is more important than its contents
C.Synchronized files remain identical to their source file at all times
D.Backup files are stored online while synchronized files are not

"Correct Answer:
C. Virtual desktop infrastructure, Remote desktop services, and Desktop as a Service
Explanation: According to the text, virtualization systems support three types of desktop virtualizations: Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI), Remote desktop services (RDS), and Desktop as a Service (DaaS).
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because there's no mention of 'Virtual desktop service' or 'HTML5 infrastructure' in the text. Option B is incorrect because 'Remote desktop protocol' and 'Hyper-V service' aren't mentioned as types of desktop virtualizations. Option D is incorrect as 'Virtualkast service', 'Desktop as a Box' or 'Hypervisor infrastructure' aren't among the three types.
Reference: Page Number 286 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the three types of desktop virtualizations systems support?

A. Virtual desktop service, Desktop as a Service, and HTML5 infrastructure
B.Virtual desktop infrastructure, Remote desktop protocol, and Hyper-V service
C.Virtual desktop infrastructure, Remote desktop services, and Desktop as a Service
D.Virtualkast service, Desktop as a Box, and Hypervisor infrastructure

"Correct Answer:
D. Every VDI desktop starts anew each time it's started, unable to store or recall state.
Explanation: Based on the text provided, Virtualization systems create persistent virtual desktops, which means that the system saves the entire virtual desktop's environment so that its user can store it and then later recall it to continue exactly at the point where it was stored. Therefore, it is incorrect to say every VDI desktop starts anew each time it's started, unable to store or recall state.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, C: These options are all correct based on the text. A) In VDI, the hypervisor creates virtual machines, each with its own desktop image, on a data center or cloud server. B) VDI can create desktop environments on the premises, on a remote workstation on a local network, or in the cloud. C) In VDI, users access the virtual desktops remotely from endpoint devices.
Reference: Page Number 286 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following statements about Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is incorrect based on the text?

A. In VDI, the hypervisor creates virtual machines, each with its own desktop image, on a data center or cloud server
B.VDI can create desktop environments on the premises, on a remote workstation on a local network, or in the cloud.
C.In VDI, users access the virtual desktops remotely from endpoint devices.
D.Every VDI desktop starts anew each time it's started, unable to store or recall state.

"Correct Answer:
A. Users access a remote desktop that shares hardware resources as well as system and application software.
Explanation: Remote Desktop Services (RDS) allows users to access a remote desktop that shares hardware resources as well as system and application software. This means, instead of having an independent environment, the RDS shares resources.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. Describes Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI), wherein each virtual machine has its unique operating environment.
C. Describes Desktop as a Service (DaaS), where the hardware or software on which the virtual desktop is generated is not supplied by the user's organization.
D. Also is a characteristic of VDI, which entails creation of virtual machines on a data center or cloud server.
Reference: Page Number 286 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following correctly describes Remote Desktop Services (RDS)?.

A. Users access a remote desktop that shares hardware resources as well as system and application software.
B.A dedicated virtual machine creates its own unique operating environment.
C.The user's organization does not supply the hardware or software on which the virtual desktop is generated, only the endpoint device used to access the service in the cloud.
D.It enables the creation of virtual machines on a data center or cloud server, each having their own desktop image.

"Correct Answer:
D. With DaaS the user's organization doesn't supply the hardware or software on which the virtual desktop is generated, only the endpoint device used to access the DaaS service in the cloud.
Explanation: In the case of DaaS, the user's organization does not provide the hardware or software where the virtual desktop is created. The only thing they provide is the endpoint device that is used to access the DaaS service in the cloud.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Both DaaS and VDI can use cloud servers.
B. In DaaS, the user's organization does not supply the hardware or software on which the virtual desktop is generated.
C. Desktop environments can be created on premises in both VDI and DaaS.
Reference: Page Number 286 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the primary difference between Desktop as a Service (DaaS) and the virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?

A. DaaS uses cloud server while VDI uses data center.
B.DaaS service in the cloud is supplied by the user's organization.
C.DaaS cannot create desktop environments on the premises while VDI can.
D.With DaaS the user's organization doesn't supply the hardware or software on which the virtual desktop is generated, only the endpoint device used to access the DaaS service in the cloud.

"Correct Answer:
D. All of the above
Explanation: All of A, B, and C are identified in the text as significant benefits to using virtualization. It makes multiplatform testing easier, offers savings on various resources, and allows for a quick recovery in the event of a hacked system.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, and C are actually all correct answers. The question asks for the 'biggest benefits', implying that there might be multiple correct answers.
Reference: Page Number 289 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are some of the biggest benefits of using virtualization?

A. It enables multiplatform testing and research on a single physical machine
B.It offers savings on hardware purchases, electricity use, and the space used for computing
C.It allows for rapidly replacing a hacked system with a snapshot of the properly working VM
D.All of the above

"Correct Answer:
B. To test or trial suspicious or newly developed programs on a virtualized computer
Explanation: Sandboxing is a virtualization technique that allows the testing or trialing of a suspicious or newly developed program on a virtual computer. By doing this, the program has the resources it needs to simulate a production environment without any associated risks.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect, sandboxing is not utilized to run new programs on a production server but rather on a virtualized environment. Option C is incorrect as Sandboxing often uses the same resources as that of a production environment, but containers are created to fit the specific task, not allocating more than required. Option D is incorrect as sandboxing reduces, not increases, the potential risk in running programs in a production environment.
Reference: Page Number 289 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the purpose of sandboxing within the realm of virtualization?

A. To run entirely new programs on a production server
B.To test or trial suspicious or newly developed programs on a virtualized computer
C.To allocate more resources than needed for a particular task
D.To increase the risk of running a program in a production environment

"Correct Answer:
D. Create a test, write a program, test the program, adapt the programming, then repeat
Explanation: In Test-Driven Development, the sequence involves creating a test first, followed by writing the program. After this, the program is tested, the programming is adapted based on the results, and the whole process is then repeated.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This sequence starts with 'Create a test' which is correct, but then it proceeds with 'adapt the programming', which is not in correct order. It should 'write a program' after 'create a test'. B: This sequence starts with 'Create a program' which is incorrect. In TDD, you first create a test, not a program. C: This sequence starts with 'Write a program' which is incorrect. In TDD, you first create a test, not write a program.
Reference: Page Number 290 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the correct sequence in the Test-Driven Development process?

A. Create a test, adapt the programming, test the program, write a program, then repeat
B.Create a program, write a test, adapt the programming, test the program, then repeat
C.Write a program, create a test, test the program, adapt the programming, then repeat
D.Create a test, write a program, test the program, adapt the programming, then repeat

"Correct Answer:
B. The interaction of a thin network client running in an application environment on a VM.
Explanation: Application virtualization refers to the way a thin network client operates in an application environment on a VM. It allows for overcoming of any environment conflicts on a local machine. It's also used to optimize running virtual applications in virtual desktop environments.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. Although correct in some contexts, this primarily describes application streaming, a specific form of application virtualization, rather than the broader concept of application virtualization itself.
C. While virtualization can indeed enable legacy systems to run on modern equipment, this specifically describes cross-platform virtualization rather than application virtualization.
D. Although application virtualization managers manage the delivery of virtual applications to user environments, this is part of the process, not the definition of application virtualization itself.
Reference: Page Number 290 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is application virtualization?

A. A process that delivers only portions of an application to a VM when they are needed.
B.The interaction of a thin network client running in an application environment on a VM.
C.A method that enables legacy operating systems and applications to continue to be used in modern systems.
D.A system for managing the delivery of virtual applications to user environments.

"Correct Answer:
D. RAM, Storage Space, and Hardware Virtualization
Explanation: The three hardware requirements for efficient virtualization support as mentioned in the text are RAM, storage space, and hardware virtualization. The text states that a VM requires as much RAM as the physical machine it's mimicking, and can take up significant storage space due to the fact it includes everything installed on it. Hardware virtualization can also be enabled in the system setup utility if the computer's CPU and BIOS UEFI include it.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, and C, while important for different aspects of computer functionality, are not mentioned as being specifically related to virtualization support, hence do not make for the right answer.
Reference: Page Number 291 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What are the three hardware requirements for efficient virtualization support?

A. CPU speed, Graphics Card, and Sound Card
B.RAM, Storage Space, and Display Size
C.Processor Cores, Clock Speed, and L3 Cache
D.RAM, Storage Space, and Hardware Virtualization

"Correct Answer:
D. Emulation imitates the actions of another system, while virtualization runs independent of the base system.
Explanation: Emulation is a process where a system imitates the actions of another. It is performed by software running on a native environment that mimics another environment. On the other hand, virtualization operates independently of the base system.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A and B are incorrect because they state the opposite of the true definitions of emulation and virtualization. The key difference is that emulation imitates another system while running on the base system, and virtualization operates independently. C is incorrect as it states that virtualization and emulation are the same thing, which contradicts the information in the text.
Reference: Page Number 292 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the key difference between emulation and virtualization?

A. Virtualization imitates the actions of another system, while emulation runs independent of the base system.
B.Emulation imitates the actions of another system, while virtualization runs on the base system.
C.Virtualization and emulation are essentially the same thing.
D.Emulation imitates the actions of another system, while virtualization runs independent of the base system.

"Correct Answer:
B. Implement strong passwords.
Explanation: The passage suggests we should treat a VM as we would a physical computer. Therefore, just like a physical computer, a VM should have strong passwords to ensure security.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
A. The passage suggests setting up different users with different levels of access for a VM used by multiple users. Therefore, it goes against the idea of having only one user profile.
C. It is suggested in the passage that OS updates should be performed as needed, which contradicts this choice.
D. Contrary to this choice, the passage advises deploying and regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware apps.
Reference: Page Number 292 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following security measures should be implemented in a Virtual Machine?

A. Only create one user profile regardless of the number of users.
B.Implement strong passwords.
C.No need to update OS frequently.
D.Antivirus and anti-malware apps are not necessary.

"Correct Answer:
B. Using the fastest wired Ethernet supported
Explanation: The text states that the easiest way to network a computer that will be hosting one or more VMs is with the fastest wired Ethernet supported. This is because wired connections are usually more reliable, faster, and stable.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Using a wireless NIC that uses a PCle slot is a possible option but not necessarily the easiest or the most reliable one according to the text. Using a USB network adapter is not recommended because of the limited support they have on most VM software. Having internet connection would of course be necessary, but the method of achieving this is important when considering hosting VMs.
Reference: Page Number 293 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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What is the easiest way to network a computer that will be hosting one or more VMs?

A. Using a wireless NIC that uses a PCle slot
B.Using the fastest wired Ethernet supported
C.Using a USB network adapter
D.Any method as long as it provides internet connection

"Correct Answer:
A. Type 1 runs directly on hardware, while Type 2 runs on a standard operating system.
Explanation: A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on computer hardware in place of a standard operating system, with no other software between it and the hardware. In contrast, a Type 2 hypervisor runs on a standard operating system (Linux, Windows, or macOS), which adds an additional layer of software.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s):
B. This is the opposite of how Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors are defined.
C. Although Type 1 is also known as a 'bare-metal' hypervisor, Type 2 is not typically known as a 'layered' hypervisor. The main distinction is that Type 2 runs on a standard operating system.
D. The reverse is true: Type 2 is used primarily for client-side virtualization, while Type 1 is typically used to run server operating systems.
Reference: Page Number 293 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following best describes the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors?

A. Type 1 runs directly on hardware, while Type 2 runs on a standard operating system.
B.Type 1 runs on a standard operating system, while Type 2 runs directly on hardware.
C.Type 1 is also known as 'bare-metal' hypervisor, while Type 2 is known as 'layered' hypervisor.
D.Type 1 is used for client-side virtualization, while Type 2 is used for server operating systems.

"Correct Answer:
B. Through the Windows Features dialog box
Explanation: On a Windows system that includes Hyper-V, you can activate it through the Windows Features dialog box, accessible via Control Panel | Programs and Features applet | Turn Windows Features On or Off.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A refers to installing a third-party hypervisor, not specifically enabling Hyper-V. Option C pertains to creating a new virtual machine after you've installed your hypervisor, not enabling Hyper-V. Option D involves operations on guest virtual machines once a hypervisor is installed, not the enabling of Hyper-V.
Reference: Page Number 294 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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How can you enable Hyper-V on a Windows system?

A. By downloading and executing the hypervisor software and follow its setup wizard
B.Through the Windows Features dialog box
C.By clicking New | Virtual Machine and completing the wizard that opens
D.By saving and deleting guest virtual machines in VMM

"Correct Answer:
D. All of the above
Explanation: After you have configured and installed the guest operating system on your VM, you can interact with the OS and other software inside it, add or remove virtual hardware, and start, stop, pause, or delete the VM. Therefore, all the given options are correct.
Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): All the given choices are incorrect since you can perform all the mentioned actions after installation of a guest operating system on your VM.
Reference: Page Number 294 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

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Which of the following actions can you perform on your VM after configuration and installation of a guest operating system?

A. Interact with the OS and other software inside it
B.Add or remove virtual hardware
C.Start, stop, pause, or delete the VM
D.All of the above

Cloud Computing

A system in which all computer programs and data is stored on a central server owned by a company (e.g. Google) and accessed virtually.

Extend the management of applications and services, deploy an infrastructure in minutes, deploy all over the world

Very efficient so helps to lower cost

Private Cloud Computing

Systems and users only have access with other devices inside the same private cloud or system.

The use of the cloud is limited to the organization for which it was developed.

Generally considered when security is the concern.

Public Cloud Computing

A service provider organization owns and manages the hardware, software, networking, and storage devices in order to provide shared resources to users via the Internet

Hybrid Cloud Computing

Mixture of public and private cloud computing

Community Cloud Model

With this model, several organizations share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

- Sometimes called Hardware as a Service (Haas), delivers hardware networking capabilities, including the use of servers, networking, and storage, over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model
- enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center
- Companies can outsource their equipment
- End users are responsible for their own security

Software as a Service (SaaS)

- service provider offers a COMPLETE solution, including the hardware, the OS, the middleware, the runtime, data processing, and the software needed delivered to end-user
- A form of cloud computing where a firm subscribes to a third-party software and receives a service that is delivered online.
- On-demand software, central management of data and applications, a complete application offering
- allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools.

G-Suite, Microsoft 365

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

- Cloud service in which consumers can install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network.
- enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes
- Complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications
- No servers, no software, no maintenance team, no HVAC
- You don 't have direct control of the data, people, or infrastructure

SalesForce.com

Internal Cloud (shared resources)

- No resources are shared
- Build your own cloud
- Pay for everything up front
- No ongoing costs
- You'll need your own data center, all of your own racks, all the equipment

External Cloud (shared resources)

• Share resources with a public cloud
• Underlying infrastructure owned by a third-party
• Cost may be metered or up-front

Metered Cloud Services

- You pay for what you use
- Cost to upload
- Cost to store
- Cost to download
- pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings

Done on an hourly basis, daily basis, or even a monthly basis.

Non-Metered Cloud Services

You pay for block of storage
No cost to upload
No cost to download

Rapid Elasticity

A cloud computing service that is capable of scaling up or down as a customer's need level changes, seamless to everyone

High-availability cloud computing

The ability to keep services up and running for long periods of time, providing redundancy, with very little downtime, depending on the service in question.

Calculated as a percentage of uptime vs downtime

five nines availability

a system that is up & running 99.999% of the time or more

Scalability

Ability to increase the number of items in a system at a linear rate or less than a linear rate

Vertical Scaling (Scaling Up)

Increasing the power of the existing resources in the working environment

Horizontal Scaling (Scaling Out)

Adding additional resources to help handle the extra load being experienced

File Synchronization

Ability to store data which can then spread to other places depending on configuration

Public Cloud

Systems and users interact with devices on public networks, such as the Internet and other clouds

Private Cloud

Systems and users only have access with other devices inside the same private cloud or system

Hybrid Cloud

A combination of public and private clouds. Because it's a combination, strict rules should be applied for whatever type of data is being hosted. For example, storing confidential data should be done on the org's private cloud portion.

Community Cloud

Collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns and service needs. The security concerns are that each company sharing the cloud may have their own security controls that each company must decide on their own how to mitigate.

Multitenancy

Allows customers to share computing resources in a public or private cloud, allowing for a large gain in efficiency because most orgs don't use all the capacity of a single server or set of servers.

Residual data may be exposed to other servers as the elasticity expands upward or downward,

Single-tenancy

Assigns a particular resource to a single organization, which tends to be less efficient than multi-tenancy solutions. It is also more expensive because it requires more hardware to run it properly.

On-Premise Solution

The need to procure hardware, software, and personnel necessary to run the organization's cloud. This also requires a facility to house the equipment and provide adequate space, power, and cooling.

Great from a security standpoint, they are extremely costly, and will require a team to support.

Hosted Solution

Third-party service provider that provides all the hardware and facilities needed to maintain a cloud solution. This is often done in a multitenancy environment with multiple orgs having their cloud solutions hosted within a single third party provider's facility.

If you have data that MUST remain confidential, you are better off using an on-premise solution, which allows the ability to CONTROL all the physical and logical access to servers.

If considering using this solution, very important to fully understand:

- authentication and authorization mechanisms to ensure they meet your requirements
- redundancy and fault tolerance measures
- storage location and location-based laws

IaaS vs PaaS

In order for something to be considered PaaS, it should contain the runtime and middleware as well as all the hardware.

IaaS vs PaaS vs SaaS

If you see things that are more than infrastructure as a service (IaaS), you want to choose PaaS. If you see things that are less than SaaS, you would again choose PaaS.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a centralized server or server farm

VDI Centralized Model

Hosts all the desktop instances on a single server or server farm

VDI Hosted Model/Desktop as a Service (DAAS)

Maintained by a service provider and provided to the end user as a service

Amazon Work Services, VMware Horizon Air, Citrix Xen desktop

VDI Remote Virtual Desktop Model

Copies the desktop image to a local machine prior to being used by the end user, eliminating the need for constant network connections., resulting in less bandwidth requirements than the other two VDI models.

Cloud Storage Application

Amount of space on a cloud-based server as file storage

Dropbox, OneDrive, Google Drive, iCloud

Content Delivery Network (CDN)

Network of servers that locates the nearest server to minimize delay or download time.

Data Remanence

residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it.

Rapid elasticity presents a security threat to your organization's data due to remanences

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

- service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription
- often combined with VDI

Resource pooling

allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use

Measured services

services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.

Vertical scaling vs Horizontal scaling

Vertical adds more power to EXISTING resources, horizontal adds additional resources

Metered services vs measured services

Metered is paying for your actual usage of what you've done, think of your water or electric bill.

Measured means paying regularly for services up to a point where you are capped and start paying overage charges.

Cloud deployment models

Public, private, hybrid, community, multitenancy, single tenancy

This decision will depend on your security needs, cost restrictions, and risk tolerance.

It will be cheapest for you to use a multitenancy model and public cloud being combined together. But this solution increases risk to your org's confidentiality and availability.

How do organizations choose which cloud deployment model to use?

Client-side virtualization.

Client-side virtualization runs on regular desktops and workstations. The virtual desktop platforms provide a means to test and develop applications under different operating systems and increase security testing via Sandbox support.

An application developer has requested a virtual environment workstation that tests pre-production applications and provides malware analyses with different operating systems and resource constraints. What type of virtualization environment should the application developer expect?

Hypervisor security.

Hypervisor security is not considered a resource. Apart from ensuring the security of each guest operating system (OS) and the host machine itself, they must also monitor the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

A lab technician is reviewing the various resource requirements associated with virtualization. What is NOT considered a resource requirement?

Virtualization.

Virtualization supports legacy software and OSs. When host computers receive an upgrade, some software applications may not work with the new operating systems (OS). Virtualization offers an environment to run older software and OSs while increasing security.

What technology increases network security requirements while providing support for legacy software and operating systems?

It may not work well with the new OS.

If the host computers are upgraded versions, legacy software applications may not work well with the new operating system (OS). As a result, the working environment could be degraded or cease to operate until it could acquire a suitable application.

A software technician identifies potential risks with installing a new operating system across the enterprise. What should the technician consider regarding legacy software applications?

Client-side virtualization.

Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is designed to run on regular desktops and workstations while supporting legacy software and operating systems.

An organization with limited resources would like to upgrade its small network to increase its security. However, the organization requires a few legacy applications running on two older, none-supported operating systems. With only one desktop to spare, what solution would meet the organization's needs?

Testing and development.

Testing and development typically use a virtual desktop platform with a guest OS hypervisor. This ensures it is working as expected.

A cyber team is developing a client-side virtualization environment for third-party contracted employees. What action does the team complete using a VM and guest OS hypervisor to ensure the environment is functioning correctly?

Host security.
Hypervisor security.

A key security vulnerability in a virtual platform is that the host represents a single point of failure for multiple guest OS instances. For example, if the host loses power, three or four guest VMs and the application services they are running will suddenly go offline.

Additionally, the hypervisor must also be monitored for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

A technician is reviewing policy on security requirements associated with virtualization. What could the technician consider as part of the security requirements?

Cross-platform virtualization.

Cross-platform virtualization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints.

A cyber technician needs to expand organizational capabilities and explore virtualization's use and testing. What tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints?

Sandbox.

A sandbox would provide an isolated environment to test malware or analyze data while protecting the network from the adverse effects of an infection.

An information security technician manages a secure and isolated network. Security is the primary concern on the isolated network, so it requires regular data transfers over optical compact disks due to network separation requirements. With the needed data and antivirus patch testing for malware detection, what solution would best fit this situation?

CPU and virtualization extensions.
Networking.

Most virtualization software requires a central processing unit (CPU) with virtualization support enabled. Even if there is no formal requirement, the VMs will be impaired if hardware-assisted virtualization is unavailable.

A hypervisor will create a virtual network environment through which all the virtual machines (VMs) can communicate and has a network shared by the host and by VMs on the same host and other hosts.

An engineer is deploying a client-side virtualization workstation. What resource requirements should the engineer consider?

Sandbox.

A sandbox is an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. The malware is within the guest operating system (OS), so it cannot infect the technician's computer or network.

A cyber technician wants to test and analyze a virus. What can the technician use to create an isolated environment while protecting the technician's computer and the company network?

Guest OS security.
Host security.
Hypervisor security.

Each guest OS must be patched and protected against malware like any other OS. Patching each virtual machine (VM) individually has performance implications, so in most environments, a new template image would be patched and tested then deployed to the production environment.

Another key security vulnerability in a virtual platform is that the host represents a single point of failure for multiple guest OS instances.

Apart from ensuring the security of each guest OS and the host machine itself, they must also monitor the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

A cyber architect is reviewing the organization's policy on virtualization security requirements. What would the architect discuss within these security requirements? (Select all that apply.)

Cross-platform virtualization.

Cross-platform virtualization is a lab and testing environment that enables a means to test software and applications under different resource constraints and operating systems.

A system administrator manages a production network with various operating systems. What would allow for testing the operating system and application patches on multiple operating systems to ensure the production network does not experience adverse effects?

It tests software applications under various constraints.

Cross-platform virtualization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints.

A cyber architect explores the capabilities, testing, and use of virtualization. What is a benefit associated with cross-platform virtualization?

It provides a controlled working environment.

A cyber engineer has isolated malware and wants to analyze it. What is the value of using a sandbox?

CPU.
System memory.
Mass Storage.

Host workstations require central processing units (CPUs) with unique instruction sets to improve virtualization performance while also providing virtualization support.

Guest and host operating systems require sufficient system memory, for example, Windows 10 requires at least 2 GB of memory on the host. Additional guest operating systems will also need a separate allocation to operate.

Mass storage will require the management of hard disk space in virtualization. Each guest OS will require a substantial amount of storage space, while the host hypervisor will also require its storage to share as guest OSs grow dynamically.

An upcoming project will require a system administrator to deploy a client-side virtualization workstation. What resource requirements must the system administrator identify for the hypervisor and of each guest before installation? (Select all that apply.)

The amount of memory required by the host/hypervisor.
The amount of available disk space.
The ability to create a virtual network environment.

Each guest operating system (OS) requires sufficient system memory over and above what the host OS/hypervisor requires.

Each guest OS also takes up a substantial amount of disk space. The virtual machine's (VM's) "hard disk" is stored as an image file on the host.

A hypervisor will create a virtual network environment through which all the VMs can communicate and a network shared by the host and by VMs on the same host and other hosts.

A cyber architect reviews the differences between resource and security requirements associated with virtualization. What should the architect consider regarding resource requirements? (Select all that apply.)

Each guest OS must be patched and protected against malware like any other OS.
The host must be protected from natural (loss of power) and technological (virus) influences.
The hypervisor must also be monitored for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

Each guest operating system (OS) must be patched and protected against malware like any other OS. Patching each virtual machine (VM) individually has performance implications, so in most environments, a new template image would be patched and tested then deployed to the production environment.

Another key security vulnerability in a virtual platform is that the host represents a single point of failure for multiple guest OS instances. Influences can be natural or technological.

Apart from ensuring the security of each guest OS and the host machine itself, they must also monitor the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

A technician is evaluating the security requirements associated with virtualization. What tenets apply to security requirement considerations? (Select all that apply.)

Application virtualization.

Application virtualization enables programmers and application administrators to ensure that the application used by clients is always updated with the latest code.

A technician is reviewing the various aspects of virtualization. What type of virtualization enables programmers to ensure that the application continuously updates with the latest code?

The resource requirements.
The security requirements.

When planning a virtualization solution, the resource requirements, such as the central processing unit (CPU), memory, and storage of the host and all guest operating systems, should be addressed to ensure no resource constraints exist.

When planning a virtualization solution, the technician must evaluate security resources to ensure the security of the host computer and guest operating systems. Additionally, monitoring of the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits is needed.

When planning to deploy a client-side virtualization solution for malware analysis where no network connectivity is needed, what are some of the issues that a technician must consider? (Select all that apply.)

It can provide the architect with a place to work in a secured environment.

A sandbox is an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. The malware is within the guest operating system (OS), so it cannot infect the architect's computer or network.

A cyber architect is reviewing log entries from a fellow architect regarding using a sandbox to evaluate a virus. What is the benefit of using a sandbox?

Analyze viruses and worms in an isolated area.

A sandbox, typically used for testing and development, would provide an isolated environment to analyze viruses or worms while protecting the network from the adverse effects of an infection.

A sandbox provides an alternate virtualized environment that offers an area for testing and developing new software. What is another primary benefit of utilizing a sandbox?

Cross-platform.

Cross-platform virtualization is a lab and testing environment that enables a means to test software and applications under different resource constraints and operating systems.

It is not out of the ordinary to require multiple operating systems in most corporate environments. What virtualization type can provide a testing or lab atmosphere that offers a means to test software and applications that require different resource constraints and operating systems?

Legacy software / OS.

If the host computers are upgraded versions, legacy software applications may not work well with the new operating system (OS). Legacy software is neither a resource nor a security requirement.

A cyber consultant is evaluating the various security requirements associated with virtualization. What is NOT considered a security requirement?

Testing and development.

Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is designed to run on regular desktops and workstations to provide a means to test and develop applications.

Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is a solution ordinally suited for desktop or workstation computers commonly used for what?

Sandbox.

The technician would use a sandbox, typically used for testing and development. It would provide an isolated environment to analyze viruses or worms while protecting the network from the adverse effects of an infection.

A cyber technician will need to analyze an email attachment forwarded from a network user. What should the technician use to have an isolated environment to inspect and research the attachment without allowing a potential virus or worm to infect the network?