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All CFR Codes you must know for your Instrument Rating
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________ is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, determining the airworthiness and operation of an aircraft prior to each flight. (91.3)
The pilot in command.
Before beginning any IFR flight, the pilot must obtain and become familiar with information about ___________? (91.103, Preflight Action)
NWKRAFT
NOTAMS
Weather reports and forecasts
Known ATC Delays
Runway Lengths
Alternates available (if the 1, 2, 3 rule is not satisfied)
Fuel Requirements
TOL Distance information
To operate an airplane in simulated instrument flight, you must have ________ occupying the other control seat as a _______. You must also use a ________ (91.109)
-At LEAST a private pilot
-Safety pilot
-View limiting device
If you deviate from an ATC clearance due to an emergency you must _________. ATC may request that you submit a detailed report within ______ hours to the manager of that ATC facility (even if no rules were violated). During an IFR flight in IMC, if a distress condition is encountered, the pilot should _____________ (distress is a condition of being threatened by serious or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance). (91.123)
-Notify ATC as soon as possible
-48 hours)
-Immediately declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance from ATC
When flying IFR, you must carry sufficient fuel to ________? (91.167)
Fly to the airport of intended landing, then fly to the alternate airport (if required by the 1-2-3 rule), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Intended airports of landing on an IFR flight must, for _______ before and after the ETA, have a ceiling of at least _______ and visibility of at least ____ . Otherwise, you must ______. (91.169)
The 1-2-3 rule for filing alternates.
-1 Hour before and after
-2000 foot ceiling
-3sm visibility
When a pilot elects to proceed to an alternate airport, the landing minimums used should be _____________________.
A) To land at an airport using a non-precision approach as an alternate, the forecasted weather must be at least a(n) ______ ceiling and ______ visibility at your ETA
B) To land at an airport using a precision approach as an alternate, the forecasted weather must be at least a(n) ______ ceiling and ______ visibility at your ETA (91.169)
-The minimums for the approach procedure you’re going to use (duh).
A) 800 ft, 2SM visibility
B) 600ft, 2SM visibility
If no instrument approaches are prescribed at your alternate, the minimums for listing it must be __________. (91.169)
VFR minimums allowing descent from the MEA, all the way to the approach and landing, maintaining VFR the whole time.
When making VOR checks, the __________ should be placed in the aircraft log or other record.
date, place, bearing error, and pilot signature
Operational VOR checks must be made every _____ days IF the airplane is to be used in __________
30 days for cross country or IFR flights.
The maximum allowable error for each type of VOR check is _______ (91.171)
6° Allowable Error:
-Airborne Checkpoint
-Victor Airway Checkpoint
4° Allowable Error:
- Dual VOR Checks
-VOT
-Ground VOR Checkpoints
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has ______ (91.173)
-Filed an IFR flight plan AND
-Received an appropriate ATC clearance
Except when necessary for Takeoff and Landing, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is _________ over mountainous terrain and _________ over nonmountainous terrain. (91.177)
-2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM (mt.)
-1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM (non mt.)
For IFR flight, navigation equipment must be appropriate to__________. Above 24,000 MSL, DME is required anywhere that ___________. (91.205)
-the ground facilities to be used
-VOR equipment is required
Under IFR flight, a plane must have VFR (day/night, whichever applicable), AND certain IFR equipment installed. What are those IFR required equipment?
GRABCARD
-Generator/Alternator
-Radios and Navigation suitable for route
-Attitude Indicator
-Ball (inclinometer)
-Clock (and timer with hours, minutes, and seconds)
-Altimeter (pressure sensitive, must have a Kollsman window)
-Rate of turn indicator
-Directional Gyro
All aircraft must have and use an altitude encoding transponder (Mode C) when operating (91.215)
-In Class A airspace
-Within Class B airspace
-Within 30NM of the primary class B airport (Mode C veil)
-Within and above Class C airspace
-At and above 10,000 MSL (except at/below 2500 AGL)
What happens if your Mode C transponder fails during flight? Lets say you fly out to Culpeper, and then your transponder fails en-route to Manassas. Are you able to continue back under the Bravo? (91.215)
If a transponder fails during flight, ATC may authorize the aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
-An airplane with an operating transponder but without Mode C (altitude encoding) can request a deviation at any time.
-If an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, the request for a deviation must be made at least 1 hour before the proposed operation.
Under what conditions must you immediately notify the NTSB of an accident? Where can you find information on this?
NTSB Part 830
(A) An aircraft accident or any of the following listed serious incidents occur:
(1) Flight control system malfunction or failure;
(2) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
(3) Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path
(4) In-flight fire;
(5) Aircraft collision in flight;
(6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less.
(8) Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft, excluding release caused solely by ground contact;
(9) A complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50 percent of an aircraft's cockpit displays known as
(i) Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays;
(ii) Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) displays;
(iii) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM) displays; or
(iv) Other displays of this type, which generally include a primary flight display (PFD), primary navigation display (PND), and other integrated displays;
(10) Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) resolution advisories issued when an aircraft is being operated on an instrument flight rules flight plan and compliance with the advisory is necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision between two or more aircraft.
(11) Damage to helicopter tail or main rotor blades, including ground damage, that requires major repair or replacement of the blade(s);
(12) Any event in which an operator, when operating an airplane as an air carrier at a public-use airport on land:
(i) Lands or departs on a taxiway, incorrect runway, or other area not designed as a runway; or
(ii) Experiences a runway incursion that requires the operator or the crew of another aircraft or vehicle to take immediate corrective action to avoid a collision.
(b) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
What is the FAR code that has to do with lost communications during IFR flight?
91.185
What to do if Comms are lost?
Troubleshoot
-Check Volume on PFD and A/P
-Check Headset Volume
-Switch to Comm 2
-Replug Headset or try on copilot side
Try to get to VFR Conditions
-Then land as soon as practical in VFR conditions
Then, IN ORDER along your Route (AVEF)
-Assigned Route (In CRAFT or most recent clearance)
-If Vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
-If no assigned route, then the route ATC has advised may be Expected in a further clearance
-By the route Filed in your flight plan
Then, at the HIGHEST of the (MEA):
-MEA
-Last Expected Altitude (Wait until the EFC time)
-Assigned Altitude (In your CRAFT Clearance)
What are the privileges and limitations of a Private Pilot?
No person may act as PIC carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. UNLESS
(b) May act as PIC for a business if the flight is only incidental to the business and the aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.
(c) May not pay less than the pro rata share.
(d) May act as PIC for charitable or non-profit event. Requires 500 hours total time.
(e) Reimbursed for SAR operations, as long as they are through approved SAR group.
(f) May act as Aircraft Salesman if you have more than 200 hours TOTAL TIME, in ALL category and classes.
(g) May tow a glider for compensation or hire with more than 100 hours PIC in category and class.
(h) May act as PIC for production flight tests in light sport aircraft with 100 hours.
CFR Code for Privileges and Limitations of a Private Pilot?
61.113
What is BasicMed?
BasicMed is a program that allows pilots without a current valid medical to act as PIC under certain conditions and with specific limitations.
How do you get BasicMed?
-You must hold a drivers license and comply with all restrictions on your drivers license
-You must have held or currently hold an unrevoked medical license on or after July 14th, 2006
-You must complete an online course with the FAA
-You must have an examination done by a state licensed physician within the preceding 48 calendar months
-Must complete a Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist
What are the Privileges and Limitations of a pilot operating under BasicMed?
Privileges:
-May act as PIC & carry pax
-May fly and file IFR (except in Class A)
-May act as CFI or DPE
Limitations:
-MGTOW 12,500 or less
-Plane certified for 7 seats max (6 passengers, 1 pilot)
-250kt Speed Limit
-18,000 MSL height limit
-International flights require authorization from country you’re flying to
-May not fly for compensation or hire (except CFI/DPE)
How long is a SODA valid for?
Indefinitely
What is an AD?
An airworthiness directive is issued by the FAA to address unsafe conditions in aircraft.
What are the different types of ADs