FAA PPL Test Prep: Ch. 9 (1 of 2): Enroute Flight Questions

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69 Terms

1
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which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

A) lines of longitude are parallel to the equator

B) lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles

C) the 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich England

B) lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles

2
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which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts?

A) airports with control towers underlying class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, class D and E airspace are magenta

B) airports with control towers underlying class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta

C) airports with control towers underlying class B, C, and E airspace are shown in blue

C) airports with control towers underlying class B, C, and E airspace are shown in blue

3
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(Refer to figure 23 area 3) what is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 NM southwest of Savanna international?

A) 1500 MSL

B) 1531 AGL

C) 1548 MSL

C) 1548 MSL

4
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(Refer to figure 24 area 2) what minimum altitude is necessary to vertical clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 ft?

A) 823 MSL

B) 1013 MSL

C) 1403 MSL

C) 1403 MSL

5
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(Refer to figure 25 area 8) what minimum altitude is required to fly over Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive?

A) 2655 ft MSL

B) 3549 ft MSL

C) 3449 ft MSL

B) 3549 ft MSL

6
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(Refer to figue 20) determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport to Hampton Airport

A) 141 degrees

B) 321 degrees

C) 332 degrees

C) 332 degrees

7
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(Refer to figure 24) determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport to Winnsboro Airport magnetic variation is 6 30'E

A) 075 degrees

B) 082 degrees

C) 091 degrees

A) 075 degrees

8
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(Refer to figure 26) determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport to Jamestown Airport

A) 153 degrees

B) 154 degrees

C) 159 degrees

A) 153 degrees

9
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(Refer to figure 68) the line from point a to point b of the wind triangle represents

A) true heading and airspeed

B) true course and groundspeed

C) ground speed and true heading

A) true heading and airspeed

10
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(Refer to figure 68) the line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents

A) airspeed and heading

B) ground speed and true course

C) true heading and ground speed

B) ground speed and true course

11
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(Refer to figure 68) the line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

A) wind direction and velocity

B) true course and ground speed

C) true heading and ground speed

A) wind direction and velocity

12
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If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

A) 019 and 12 knots

B) 200 and 13 knots

C) 246 and 13 knots

C) 246 and 13 knots

13
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When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

A) subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle

B) add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle

C) subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle

B) add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle

14
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How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

A) 14.25 Nm

B) 15.00 NM

C) 14.50 NM

A) 14.25 Nm

15
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how far will an aircraft travel in 2 1/2 mins with a groundspeed of 98knots?

A) 2.45 NM

B) 3.35 NM

C) 4.08 NM

C) 4.08 NM

16
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(Refer to figure 25) determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham to Denton Muni the wind is from 330 at 25 knots the true airspeed is 110 knots and the magnetic variation is 7 degree east

A) 004 degrees

B) 017 degrees

C) 023 degrees

A) 004 degrees

17
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(Refer to figures 23 and 58) determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport to Hampton Varnville Airport the wind is from 280 degree at 08 knots the true airspeed is 85 knots and the magnetic variation is 5 degree west

A) 033 degrees

B) 042 degrees

C) 038 degrees

B) 042 degrees

18
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(Refer to figure 21) determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport to Minot International the wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots the true airspeed is 100 knots and the magnetic variation is 10 degree east

A) 002 degrees

B) 012 degrees

C) 352 degrees

C) 352 degrees

19
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(Refer to figure 22) determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport to St. Marines Airport the wind is from 215 degrees at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots

A) 172 degrees

B) 349 degrees

C) 187 degrees

A) 172 degrees

20
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(Refer to figure 22) what is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport to Shoeshone County Airport the wind is from 030 degrees at 12 knots and the airspeed is 95 knots

A) 121 degrees

B) 143 degrees

C) 136 degrees

A) 121 degrees

21
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(Refer to figure 22) determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Marines Airport to Priest River Airport the wind is from 340 degrees at 10 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots

A) 345 degrees

B) 329 degrees

C) 327 degrees

B) 329 degrees

22
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(Refer to figure 23) determine the magnetic heading for a flight form Allendale County Airport to Claxton-Evans County Airport the wind is from 090 degrees at 16 knots the true airspeed is 90 knots and the magnetic variation is 6 degrees west

A) 209 degrees

B) 230 degrees

C) 212 degrees

A) 209 degrees

23
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on a cross country flight point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours, determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule

A) 126 knots

B) 137 knots

C) 152 knots

B) 137 knots

24
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(Refer to figure 25) determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Dallas Executive to Fort Worth Meacham the wind is from 030 degrees at 10 knots the true airspeed is 135 knots and the magnetic variation is 7 degrees east

A) 266 degrees

B) 286 degrees

C) 312 degrees

B) 286 degrees

25
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(Refer to figure 75) what is the time en route from Gila Bend VORTAC to Buckeye VOR along V461 at a TAS of 125 knots with forecasted winds from 180 at 17 knots?

A) approximately 14 mins

B) approximately 15 mins

C) approximately 13 mins

C) approximately 13 mins

26
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(Refer to figure 21) what is the estimated tine en route from Mercer County Airport to Minot International the wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots, add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb out

A) 47 mins

B) 44 mins

C) 52 mins

A) 47 mins

27
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(Refer to figure 25 area 4) the floor of class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport north-northwest of Fort Meacham Field is

A) at the surface

B) 3200 ft MSl

C) 4000 ft MSl

A) at the surface

28
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(Refer to figure 25 area 2) the floor of class B airspace at Addison Airport is

A) at the surface

B) 3000 ft MSL

C) 3100 ft MSL

B) 3000 ft MSL

29
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what minimum pilot certification is required for operation within class B airspace?

A) commercial pilot certificate

B) private pilot certificate of student pilot certificate with appropriate endorsements in logbook

C) private pilot certificate with instrument rating

B) private pilot certificate of student pilot certificate with appropriate endorsements in logbook

30
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what minimum pilot certification is required for operation within class B airspace?

A) private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

B) recreational pilot certificate

C) private pilot certificate with an instrument rating

A) private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

31
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(Refer to figure 25) at which airports is fixed wing special VFR not authorized?

A) Forth Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks

B) Dallas-Forth Worth International and Dallas Love Field

C) Addison and Dallas Executive

B) Dallas-Forth Worth International and Dallas Love Field

32
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What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A) 2 way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

B) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

C) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver

B) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

33
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a blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace?

A) class B

B) class C

C) class D

C) class D

34
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airspace at an airport with a part time control tower is classified as class D airspace only

A) when the weather minimums are below basic VFR

B) when the associated control tower is in operation

C) when the associated FSS is in operation

C) when the associated FSS is in operation

35
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the lateral dimensions of class D airspace are based on

A) the number of airports that lie within class D airspace

B) 5 SM from the geographical center of the primary airport

C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

36
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when a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day what happens to the airspace designation?

A) the airspace designation normally will not change

B) the airspace remains class D airspace a long as a weather observer or automated weather system is avalible

C) the airspace reverts to class D or a combination of class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

C) the airspace reverts to class D or a combination of class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

37
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a non tower satellite airport within the same class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

A) satellite airports UNICOM

B) associated FSS

C) primary airports control tower

C) primary airports control tower

38
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2 wat radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A) class C

B) class E

C) class G

A) class C

39
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which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class C airspace?

A) contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

B) contact the tower and request permission to enter

C) contact the FSS for traffic advisories

A) contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

40
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the vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A) 1200 ft AGL

B) 3000 ft AGL

C) 4000 ft AGL

C) 4000 ft AGL

41
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the radius of the procedural outer area of class C airspace Is normally

A) 10 NM

B) 20 NM

C) 30 NM

B) 20 NM

42
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all operations within class C airspace must be in

A) accordance with instrument flight rules

B) compliance with ATC clearances and instructions

C) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with mode C encoding capability

C) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with mode C encoding capability

43
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under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within class C airspace?

A) the pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure

B) the pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the class C airspace

C) the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

C) the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

44
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(Refer to figure 69) what minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kieberg Co. Airport to Corpus Christi Airport?

A) 2 way radio communication

B) 2 way radio and mode C transponder

C) 2 way radio and mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment

C) 2 way radio and mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment

45
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(Refer to figure 23 area 3) what is the floor of the Savannah class C airspace at the shell area

A) 1300 ft AGL

B) 1300 ft MSL

C) 1700 ft MSL

B) 1300 ft MSL

46
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(Refer to figure 20 area 1) what minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk international?

A) mode C transponder and omnireciever

B) mode Transponder and 2 way radio

C) ode C transponder, omnireciever and DME

B) mode Transponder and 2 way radio

47
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what minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class C airspace?

A) 2 way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

B) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and DME

C) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

C) 2 way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

48
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normal VFR operations within classs D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

A) 1000 ft and 1 mile

B) 1000 ft and 3 miles

C) 2500 ft and 3 miles

B) 1000 ft and 3 miles

49
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unless otherwise authorized 2 way radio communications with ATC are required for landings and takeoffs

A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

B) at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions as less than VFR

C) at all tower controlled airports within class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR

A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

50
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(Refer to figure 25 area 4) the airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

A) class B airspace to 10000 MSL

B) class C airspace to 5000 MSL

C) class D airspace to 3200 ft MSL

C) class D airspace to 3200 ft MSL

51
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(Refer to figure 59 area 3) the airspace directly overlying the town if Findlay is

A) class E airspace from 700 ft AGL

B) surface area class E airspace

C) class E airspace from 1200 ft AGL

B) surface area class E airspace

52
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unless otherwise authorized Federal Airways include that class E airspace extending upward from

A) 700 ft above the surface up to and including 17999 ft MSL

B) 1200 ft above the surface up to and including 17999 ft MSL

C) the surface up to and including 18000 ft MSL

B) 1200 ft above the surface up to and including 17999 ft MSL

53
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with certain exceptions class E airspace extends upward from wither 700 ft or 1200 ft AGL to but does not include

A) 10000 ft MSL

B) 14500 ft MSL

C) 18000 ft MSL

C) 18000 ft MSL

54
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(Refer to figure 20 area 1) the NALF Fentress Airport is in what typeof airspace ?

A) class C

B) class E

C) class G

B) class E

55
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(Refer to figure 22 area 3) the vertical limits of that portion of class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

A) 700 ft MSL to 12500 ft MSL

B) 7500 ft MSL to 17999 ft MSL

C) 1200 ft AGL to 17999 ft MSL

C) 1200 ft AGL to 17999 ft MSL

56
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(Refer to figure 26 area 1) identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport

A) class G airspace surface up to but not including 18000 ft MSL

B) class G airspace surface up to but not including 1200 ft AGL, class E airspace 1200 ft AGL up to but not including 18000 ft MSL

C) class G airspace surface up to but not including 700 ft MSL class E airspace 700 ft to 14500 ft MSL

B) class G airspace surface up to but not including 1200 ft AGL, class E airspace 1200 ft AGL up to but not including 18000 ft MSL

57
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(Refer to figure 26 area 5) the airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

A) class D airspace form the surface to the floor of the overlying class E airspace

B) class E airspace from the surface to 1200 ft MSl

C) class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft AGL

C) class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft AGL

58
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(Refer to figure 25 area 7) the airspace overlying Collin CO RGL McKinney is controlled from the surface to

A) 2500 ft MSL

B) 2900 ft MSL

C) 700 ft AGL

B) 2900 ft MSL

59
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(Refer to figure 20 area 4) what hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A) military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

B) unusual often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

C) high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity

B) unusual often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

60
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(Refer to figure 75 area 6) during preflight planning your course is plotted to fly through R-2305 where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?

A) in Aeronautical Information Manual

B) in the Chart Supplement U.S.

C) on the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area

C) on the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area

61
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(Refer to figure 26 area 2) what hazards to aircraft exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

A) unusual often invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing aerial gunnery or guided missiles

B) high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

C) military aerobatic training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

C) military aerobatic training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

62
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flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A) filed an IFR flight plan

B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency

C) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base

B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency

63
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under what condition of any may a pilot fly through a restricted airspace?

A) when flying on airways with ATC clearance

B) with the controlling agencies authorization

C) regulations do not allow this

B) with the controlling agencies authorization

64
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what actions should a pilot take when operating under VFR in military operating areas?

A) obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA

B) operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA

C) exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

C) exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

65
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responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

A) the controlling agency

B) all pilots

C) ATC

B) all pilots

66
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(Refer to figure 21 area 3) what type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A) IFR training flights above 1500 ft AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

B) VFR training flights above 1500 ft AGL at speeds less than 250 knots

C) instrument training flights below 1500 ft AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots

A) IFR training flights above 1500 ft AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

67
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(Refer to figure 26 area 3) when flying over Arrowhead National Wildlife Refuge a plot should fly no lower than

A) 2000 ft AGL

B) 2500 ft AGL

C) 3000 ft AGL

A) 2000 ft AGL

68
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pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

A) 1000 ft AGL

B) 2000 ft AGL

C) 3000 ft AGL

B) 2000 ft AGL

69
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in which airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

A) class A

B) class B

C) class C

A) class A